GE5103 Project Management All Quizezz

The ideal time to on-board core team members is when the project charter is being written.  a. True  b. False

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All project teams progress uniformly through five stages of team development.  a. True  b. False

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Synergy results in a team having a collective capability that exceeds the sum of individual capabilities.  a. True  b. False

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The "relationship" topics within team ground rules, such as "discuss openly and protect confidentiality" and "avoid misunderstandings", should eliminate the need for the team to address how to handle conflict.  a. True  b. False

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A project manager understands the importance of understanding individual motives, and takes the time to ask each team member what he or she personally wants from being involved in the project.  a. True  b. False

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A project manager's referent power is described as persuading others based upon giving them something.  a. True  b. False

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The adoption of specific ground rules that specify acceptable behaviors by project team members can improve working relationships, effectiveness, and communication.  a. True  b. False

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When a project team member is not performing, rewards may not prove as effective as a coercive approach that threatens the team member with undesired consequences.  a. True  b. False

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Conflict over ideas on how to proceed with a project can lead to more creative approaches.  a. True  b. False

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The negotiation process involves several steps such as: preparing for negotiation; knowing your walk-away point; and working towards a common goal.  a. True  b. False

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It is argued that project teams progress through five stages of team development. Which of the following sequences best represents this progression?

a. forming, storming, norming, performing, reforming

b. forming, performing, reforming, norming, adjourning

c. forming, norming, storming, performing, reforming

d. forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning

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During which stage of team development do team members attempt to jockey for power, ask many questions and establish dubious goals?

a. storming

b. forming

c. norming

d. performing

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Agile teams require motivated members with a higher level of commitment, and agile teams have all of the following desirable traits EXCEPT:

a. Deliver value

b. Question everything

c. Argue about everything

d. Fail their way to success

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Which two project team success factors have shown the strongest correlation to successful project performance as perceived by senior managers?

a. Stimulating work environment and opportunity for team and individual recognition

b. Mutual trust, respect, and credibility and cross-functional cooperation

c. Clearly defined project and team objectives, and use of task and relationship behaviors to resolve conflicts

d. Clear project plans created by the team, and effective communications

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All of the following are among the methods project managers can use to develop individual and team capabilities EXCEPT:

a. demonstrate personal leadership

b. teach personal responsibility

c. utilize coercive powers

d. demand situational leadership

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All of the following represent common methods for making decisions on contemporary project teams EXCEPT:

a. The project manager or sponsor makes the decision.

b. The project team votes to make the decision.

c. One or two team members recommend or make the decision.

d. The steering team reviews the project data and makes the decision.

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Frequently, project managers lack legitimate power based upon position and instead resort to persuading others based upon personal relationships. This type of power is known as:

a. coercive power

b. positional power

c. connection power

d. referent power

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Which of the following styles of handling conflict is most appropriate whenever there is enough time, trust can be established, the issue is important to both sides and buy-in is needed?

a. forcing / competing

b. collaborating / problem solving

c. smoothing / accommodating

d. compromising

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Which of these is NOT among the common task-related sources of project conflict?

a. personalities

b. technical approach

c. schedule

d. priorities

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All of the following are among the steps of the negotiation process EXCEPT:

a. work toward a common goal

b. clarify and confirm agreements

c. clarify both parties' interests

d. use "good cop / bad cop" technique

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A project manager must use effective communications to set and manage expectations of all stakeholders as well as to ensure that project work is completed properly and on time.  a. True  b. False

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A stakeholder is anyone who will use, will be affected by or could impact the project.  a. True  b. False

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Stakeholders include people who have their routines disrupted by the project.  a. True  b. False

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Project managers should purposefully plan and carry out relationship-building activities with stakeholders that lead to respect and trust.  a. True  b. False

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The communications management plan is finalized during project planning, and should only be changed through a formal change control process.  a. True  b. False

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Common purposes for project communications include status reporting and efforts to obtain approval of project outputs.  a. True  b. False

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Contemporary project communications typically include both push methods such as blogs, and pull methods such as e-mail.  a. True  b. False

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The plan-do-check-act (PDCA) process improvement model can be applied specifically to improving project meetings.  a. True  b. False

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An issue log is a document that identifies the specific issues that must be resolved before a particular project management meeting adjourns.  a. True  b. False

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During the Manage Communications process, project managers must continuously monitor relationships, communications, and lessons learned in order to manage stakeholder expectations.  a. True  b. False

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________ is the process of the project team communicating and working with stakeholders to satisfy their needs (and additional desires, when possible), handle issues quickly and encourage active stakeholder participation throughout.

a. Analyze Stakeholders

b. Plan Stakeholder Engagement

c. Identify Stakeholders

d. Manage Stakeholder Engagement

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Stakeholders include all of the following people EXCEPT:

a. those whose routines may be disrupted by the project

b. those who work on the project

c. those who will not be impacted by the project

d. those who provide people or resources for the project

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Which of these is NOT one of the three methods of communication that will be documented in a communication plan?

a. Push methods

b. Pull methods

c. Interactive methods

d. Virtual methods

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Project stakeholders can be prioritized based upon their level of power, legitimacy and urgency plus a number of additional criteria that might include:

a. impact

b. tenure

c. fame

d. personality

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The stakeholder register information can be used to evaluate the interests of different stakeholder groups by performing a _______ analysis to identify where there may be common areas of interest between the groups.

a. ITSFWI (if-the-shoe-fits-wear-it)

b. MBWA (management-by-wandering-around)

c. WIIFT (what's-in-it-for-them)

d. PDCA (plan-do-check-act)

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In the Plus-Delta method of evaluating project meetings, the "delta" column is used for team members to offer their opinion about one aspect of the meeting that ________.

a. Was an issue raised in the meeting should be followed up before the next meeting

b. Was good and should be repeated

c. Was poor and could be avoided (changed) in future meetings

d. Involves the behavior of one of the team members

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A principal idea in agile is that the length of daily stand-up meetings should be ___________.

a. 10 minutes or less

b. 45 minutes or less

c. 15 minutes or less

d. 30 minutes or less

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In order to plan for a project meeting, project managers should develop an agenda. Which of the statements below is NOT accurate with respect to a project meeting agenda?

a. the agenda should only be shared with senior management.

b. the agenda should list the major topics of the meeting in the order in which they will be covered.

c. the project manager should assure the agenda is prepared and distributed ahead of time.

d. the agenda should state the purpose of the meeting.

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A situation that requires a decision to be made, but one that the team that cannot make now, usually due to needing more information or time, is called a(n) _____:

a. issue

b. assumption

c. constraint

d. risk

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Once the project is underway, the project manager and team need to manage communications by doing all of the following activities EXCEPT:

a. Communicate promptly, providing information soon enough so that it is useful to recipients and facilitates timely decisions.

b. Communicate accurately, presenting information in a manner that people are likely to interpret correctly.

c. Communicate effectively, taking actions to ensure the receiver understands the communication and acts appropriately.

d. Communicate thoroughly, copying all stakeholders on all e-mails and team status reports.

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All of these are reasons why understanding project stakeholders is important to successful project management EXCEPT:

a. There may be multiple users, and each may have different wants and needs.

b. End users may not fully understand what they want because they don't know what alternatives might be available.

c. The customer who pays for the project is always the actual person who uses the project deliverables, and as the end user they fully understand their needs.

d. When someone else is paying for the project some users will ask for many project outcomes that are expensive or time consuming to deliver.

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Which of these is an example of an internal stakeholder who would be impacted by the project process?

a. Government Agencies

b. Special Interest Groups

c. Suppliers

d. Competing Projects

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One of these is NOT a criterion to consider when prioritizing stakeholders:

a. Power

b. Legitimacy

c. Attitude

d. Urgency

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When should the relationship building between the project manage / other core team members and important stakeholders occur?

a. Initiating / Creation of the project charter

b. Planning / Creation of the detailed project plan

c. Executing and Monitoring & Controlling

d. Throughout the project

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The old saying "What's in it for me?" describes what each stakeholder wants, and there are a number of things that can be done to build a relationship between stakeholders and the core team. Which of these is NOT one of the ways to build these relationships?

a. Extend a sincere invitation to early and continued involvement.

b. Be responsive to stakeholder needs and requests.

c. Carefully review every communication prior to sharing it with stakeholders to make sure that it is politically correct.

d. Act in a reliable manner.

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Which of these is NOT one of the ways to build relationships with the core team?

a. Encourage open communication.

b. Use shared learning.

c. Share enjoyment of the project.

d. Defer to the project manager for problem solving and decision making.

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One of these is NOT an important and necessary function of communications from stakeholders:

a. Reporting project progress.

b. Authorizing work.

c. Determining requirements.

d. Uncovering issues and assumptions.

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Which of these is NOT a reason why effective communications to stakeholders are necessary?

a. Help them make good decisions.

b. Prepare them to accept project deliverables.

c. Authorizing work.

d. Assure them of project progress.

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Clarence and his team are working on a high profile project, and want to be sure that they are proactive about managing stakeholder expectations. What document can they refer to in order to understand their stakeholders' assumptions?

a. Stakeholder Identification and Prioritization Matrix

b. Business Case

c. Communications Plan

d. Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix

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What are the characteristics of "pull" communications?

a. Communications are posted either on paper or in electronic form and stakeholders need to take the initiative to receive the communication.

b. Communications are sent out either on paper or in electronic form.

c. Communications flow in multiple directions.

d. Information is maintained in an information retrieval and distribution system.

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All of these are types of project communications timing schedules EXCEPT:

a. Project Life Cycle

b. Organizational Structure

c. Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA)

d. As-Needed Basis

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Which of the answers below is NOT information to be contained in the communications matrix?

a. Who does the project team need to share with?

b. Where will project meetings take place?

c. What does the stakeholder need to know?

d. When does the stakeholder need to know the information?

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It is important to capture lessons learned in a knowledge database because _____________:

a. The team needs an audit trail of project decisions in order to avoid stakeholder liability.

b. The team may forget what decisions they made earlier in the project and need a reference point.

c. The organization will benefit from the capture and re-use of knowledge developed during the project.

d. In an Agile environment lessons learned are the only way to share information about what went right and wrong with the project.

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The second-to-last item on a standard project team meeting agenda is _________:

a. Purpose

b. Meeting summary

c. Logistics

d. Topics

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Which of these is NOT one of the three questions that each team member answers in an Agile standup meeting?

a. What they achieved the previous day.

b. What issues they've encountered during this iteration and how they've resolved them.

c. What they plan to accomplish today.

d. What obstacles are preventing them from accomplishing their work.

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The project scope is the work that must be performed to deliver a product, service or result with the required features and functions.  a. True  b. False

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The priority of the product in agile is more significant than in traditional project management, as the outcome, or product, will drive the elaboration of the project.  a. True  b. False

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The project scope statement establishes the project boundaries by stating what features and work elements are included (in scope) and which are excluded (out of scope).  a. True  b. False

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The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is normally developed by listing deliverables - major deliverables first and then progressively smaller ones until the team feels that every deliverable has been identified.  a. True  b. False

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A Work Breakdown Structure must be decomposed at least four levels in order to be effective.  a. True  b. False

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A WBS dictionary is a document that defines each of the terms used in the project scope statement.  a. True  b. False

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When a project team needs to construct a WBS, it needs to include in its planning team a subject matter expert (SME) who understands how each segment of the work will be accomplished.  a. True  b. False

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A "top-down" approach to creating a WBS is typically used when a project is unique and different from previous projects.  a. True  b. False

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It is important to assign a unique name and a unique number to every component in the project Work Breakdown Structure.  a. True  b. False

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Once the plan baseline has been approved and the project is underway, project teams deal with change by establishing and using a change control system to receive and review change proposals and accept or reject them after evaluating their impact on project scope, cost and schedule.  a. True  b. False

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All of the following elements should be included in a project scope statement EXCEPT:

a. names of the project team members

b. final and intermediate deliverables with acceptance criteria

c. constraints imposed on the project, and assumptions made during planning

d. project boundaries or exclusions

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On agile projects, the scope definition begins with :

a. work packages

b. requirements

c. large chunks of work, or features

d. stories and personas

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It is helpful to list requirements and supporting information in a requirements traceability matrix. When requirements are complete, they should meet all of these criteria EXCEPT:

a. Qualified by measurable conditions

b. Prioritized according to value, cost, time, risk, or mandate so trade-off decisions can be made if needed

c. Identified with the stakeholder(s) who needs it

d. Assigned to a team member who will be the requirement owner

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The method of dividing the project scope into many parts that, when combined, would constitute the project deliverable is called _____:

a. decomposition

b. requirements traceability

c. rolling wave planning

d. collect requirements

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A _______ is the approved project plan mainly consisting of scope, schedule, and cost that is not normally altered unless a formal change control request is approved for modifying these plans.

a. requirement.

b. benchmark.

c. baseline.

d. component.

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Which of the following is NOT a format that is typically used to represent a Work Breakdown Structure?

a. Hierarchical or "org chart"

b. Requirements Traceability Matrix

c. Free format

d. Indented outline

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The overall project is considered to be the first level of the WBS. All of the following methods can be used to organize the second level of the WBS EXCEPT:

a. Organized by activities and tasks

b. Organized by design components / deliverables.

c. Organized by project phase.

d. Organized by work function./ subproject

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This technique is an iterative process that identifies and defines the work to be completely accomplished in the near term, and plans the future work at a higher level.

a. Decomposition.

b. Agile

c. Traceability

d. Rolling wave planning.

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The work component at the lowest level of the WBS for which cost and duration can be estimated and managed is called the ______:

a. activity

b. work package

c. work element

d. control account

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A _________ is a written request or formal proposal to propose changes to any project planning component such as a document, project deliverable, or baseline (scope, cost, and time).

a. scope statement

b. request for proposal (RFP)

c. project charter

d. change request

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What is the first step in developing a project scope management plan?

a. Identify stakeholders.

b. Create a Work Breakdown Structure.

c. Create a project Scope Statement.

d. Collect requirements.

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All of these are tasks that comprise the "define scope" process EXCEPT:

a. List deliverables and acceptance criteria.

b. Establish project boundaries.

c. Create a scope description.

d. Identify work packages.

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For a construction project, the house is the _______ deliverable, and the how-to instructions are the _____ deliverable.

a. Project, product

b. Product, interim

c. Product, project

d. Functional, non-functional

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Scope definition is a critical part of project planning. Which of these PMBOK Knowledge Areas does NOT use the defined scope as the foundation for their planning processes?

a. Plan Cost Management.

b. Plan Schedule Management.

c. Identify Stakeholders.

d. Plan Risk Management.

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All of these could be common causes of scope creep EXCEPT:

a. The project scope is not clearly defined and agreed upon.

b. The team adds more work to the project without realizing that more time and resources will be required.

c. The team defines project and product scope as well as exclusions, constraints and assumptions in a project scope statement.

d. A customer is so excited about project progress that they ask for a new not previously requested project deliverable.

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What does the acronym WBS stand for?

a. Workplace Backup System

b. Work Breakdown Schematic

c. Workplace Business Structure

d. Work Breakdown Structure

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All of these are advantages of using a WBS EXCEPT:

a. To encourage a systematic planning process.

b. To ensure all dates assigned to schedule activities are within the overall project timeline.

c. To reduce the possibility of omission of key elements.

d. To simplify the project by dividing it into manageable units.

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Which of these is NOT one of the three ways to organize a WBS?

a. The WBS is organized by PMBOK Knowledge Area.

b. The WBS is organized by project phase.

c. The WBS is organized by design components / deliverables.

d. The WBS is organized by work function / subproject.

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The lowest level of a WBS is known as a _________:

a. Schedule activity.

b. Requirement

c. Work package.

d. Deliverable.

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A document that provides more information about each work package by documenting details about the associated deliverable, activity, scheduling information, person responsible, resources required, etc. is called a ________:

a. WBS

b. WBS Dictionary

c. Project Scope Statement

d. Requirements Traceability Matrix

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The planning technique of identifying and defining the work to be accomplished in the near term completely, and planning the future work at a higher level, is called ___________:

a. Decomposition

b. Rolling Wave Planning

c. Baselining

d. Joint Application Design (JAD) Session

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Uncontrolled change is known as:

a. Scope creep.

b. Over budget condition.

c. Missed schedule milestones.

d. Quality issues.

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The processes to receive and review change proposals and accept or reject them after evaluating their impact on project scope, cost and schedule is managed through _________:

a. Progressive elaboration.

b. Change control system.

c. Rolling wave planning.

d. Meetings with key stakeholders.

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Which of these is NOT a typical section in a change request form?

a. Impact on project scope.

b. Impact on budget.

c. Impact on other projects.

d. Impact on deadline dates.

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A ________ is the approved project plan for scope, schedule, and cost that is not altered unless a formal change request is approved.

a. Schedule

b. Budget

c. Work Breakdown Structure

d. Baseline

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According to PMI, after planning schedule management, the next process in project time management is to ___________.

a. Sequence activities

b. Define activities

c. Estimate activity durations

d. Develop schedule

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In order to be useful as schedule building blocks, activities should have certain characteristics. Which of these is NOT one of the characteristics that an activity should have?

a. Tangible output that can be verified

b. It is the element at the lowest level of the WBS and has a deliverable associated with it

c. Resources, other costs, and schedule that can be estimated and controlled

d. Clear starting and ending points

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What is another name for the Activity-on-Node (AON) network diagramming technique?

a. Activity on Arrow (AOA)

b. Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)

c. Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT)

d. Critical Path Method (CPM)

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Which of these is NOT a typical situation for creating a project schedule milestone?

a. Time just before a large amount of money needs to be committed to the project

b. Time for weekly project meetings

c. Merging point in the schedule where multiple project activities need to be completed

d. Completion of a critical activity

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The schedule activity that follows a predecessor activity, as determined by their logical relationship, is called a ________.

a. Lag

b. Predecessor activity

c. Lead

d. Successor activity

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Which of these four most common types of logical dependencies would be represented by the situation "the carton must be sealed and labelled before the package can be shipped?"

a. Start-to-start (SS)

b. Start-to-finish (SF)

c. Finish-to-start (FS)

d. Finish-to-finish (FF)

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Potential problems can occur with activity duration estimating when omissions are made. All of these are potential remedies for this problem EXCEPT:

a. Rolling wave planning

b. Checklists, templates, devil's advocate

c. Refining scope and WBS

d. Lessons learned

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Which of these is NOT one of the actions that should be completed during the Two-Pass Method of determining the critical path?

a. List all of the paths through the network

b. Complete the backward pass through the network

c. Complete the forward pass through the network

d. Calculate float and the critical path

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If an activity on the critical path falls behind schedule, what effect will this have on the entire project?

a. It will not have an effect on the project if the critical path activity has free float

b. It will only have an effect on its successor activity, not the entire project

c. It will increase the length of the entire project by the amount of schedule slippage for the activity

d. It will not have an effect on the project if the critical path activity has total float

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If a painted room must dry for four hours before work can continue, the result is a delay in the successor activity. The wait for paint to dry is an example of a __________.

a. Lead

b. Lag

c. Mandatory dependency

d. Discretionary dependency

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A professor who always grades on a curve cannot finish scoring the midterm exams until all of the students have completed taking the test. What kind of relationship is this?

a. Start-to-start (SS)

b. Start-to-finish (SF)

c. Finish-to-start (FS)

d. Finish-to-finish (FF)

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Which of these is NOT an advantage of using Monte Carlo analysis for predicting a project schedule?

a. It allows for more realistic estimates.

b. It is flexible, and allows for an entire range of possible time estimates to be used for any activity.

c. It uses three time estimates – Optimistic, Pessimistic, and Most Likely.

d. It can provide extensive information about individual activities and different paths through the project.

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A basic Gantt Chart can be helpful in project planning in all of these ways EXCEPT:

a. It provides a visual representation of the project schedule

b. It is easy to understand when each activity should be performed

c. It shows the critical path activities in red or boldface

d. It shows predecessor-successor relationships, late start dates, etc.

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A lead is a change in the logical relationship that results in the _____ of the successor activity.

a. Delay

b. Overlap

c. Acceleration

d. Elimination

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______ is defined as "the amount of time a schedule activity can be delayed without delaying the early start of immediately following schedule activities."

a. Total float

b. Lag time

c. Free float

d. Lead time

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In addition to technical skills, a project manager must have _________ skills in order to successfully resource a project.

a. Microsoft Project

b. Behavioral

c. Estimating

d. Cultural

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Why is it important to involve workers in the planning phase of a project when possible?

a. The project manager needs to know what vacation days they plan to take.

b. Project plans are only accurate when the team does all of the planning.

c. People are more likely to be enthusiastic about performing work they helped to plan.

d. During the planning phase the project manager needs to determine if the team members will work well together.

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A Staffing Management Plan addresses all of the areas below EXCEPT:

a. How to identify potential internal and/or external human resources for the project.

b. How to determine the availability of the internal and/or external human resources for the project

c. How to handle timing issues with regard to building up, developing, rewarding, and releasing the project team.

d. How to record resource assignments in a project scheduling tool such as MS Project.

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Near the end of the project, timing issues regarding team members must be addressed. Which of the answers below is NOT one of the three "r" end-of-project activities related to project team members?

a. Recognizing team members

b. Retrospective meetings with team members

c. Releasing team members

d. Rewarding team members

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RAM stands for:

a. Resource Accountability Matrix

b. Responsibility Assignment Matrix

c. Responsible, Accountable, Consult and Inform

d. Resource Assignment Matrix

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Which of these is NOT one of the roles of key project stakeholders represented in a RACI Chart?

a. R = Responsible

b. A = Accountable

c. C = Control

d. I = Inform

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Hector and his team were preparing a RACI chart for the major project work packages and activities. In each row they only assigned an "A" for Accountable to a single resource. Why did they feel it was necessary for only one person to be assigned the accountability for each activity?

a. Because only one person should do the work on each activity or work package.

b. Because the project manager is always the person who is accountable for each activity or work package.

c. Because if more than one person has accountability, it is too easy for them to blame each other when something goes wrong.

d. Because there are rarely enough people on a project team to have more than one person be accountable.

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What can a project manager do to determine if workers are overloaded?

a. Ask them if they are too busy.

b. Check to see if they have been working overtime.

c. Check the network diagram for resource overloads.

d. Add the demands for each resource at each time period.

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Whom should the project manager consult if there is a severe resource overload and they are considering alternative actions such as reducing the project scope, assigning activities to other workers, splitting activities, reordering activities or resource leveling?

a. The resources who are involved.

b. The project sponsor.

c. The scrum master.

d. The customer.

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What will happen to a project's schedule if there are resource overloads and the critical path is delayed?

a. Nothing will happen to the project's schedule if the critical path is delayed.

b. The project's schedule will slip only if the float / slack period for the critical path activities is not enough to resolve the resource overload issue.

c. The project's schedule will slip only if the float / slack period for the noncritical activities is not enough to resolve the resource overload issue.

d. There is never a delay in the critical path, because it is the longest path through the network.

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In regard to resource leveling, why are noncritical path activities generally the first to be delayed?

a. Because they are longer in duration.

b. Because they have available slack / float.

c. Because they require fewer resources.

d. Because they are not important.

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Which of these is NOT a technique for reducing the critical path and compressing a project's schedule?

a. Overlap sequential activities using finish-to-finish (FF), start-to-start (SS), or start-to-finish (SF) relationships.

b. Perform a forward pass and a backward pass through the network.

c. Shorten activities by assigning more resources (crashing).

d. Schedule activities that are normally in sequence at the same time (fast tracking).

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When crashing a project schedule, the two questions to be asked when deciding which activities to speed up are ________ and _________.

a. Which activities have float, and which activity costs the least on a per-day basis to speed up?

b. Are my most skilled resources available, and which activities are on the critical path?

c. Which activities are on the critical path, and which critical path activity costs the least on a per-day basis to speed up?

d. Which activities can I overlap by using time leads, and which work packages can I remove to reduce project scope?

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In addition to predecessor-successor relationships, what does critical chain project management (CCPM) factor into its scheduling?

a. Calculations on resource availability

b. Final project deliverables

c. Planning the current phase in detail and later phases at a high level

d. Multitasking wherever possible

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When using Reverse Phase Scheduling, the __________ develops the schedule.

a. Sponsor

b. Customer

c. Project Manager

d. Team

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What type of costs do NOT depend on the size of the project?

a. Variable costs

b. Direct costs

c. Fixed costs

d. Indirect costs

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During which phase of a project life cycle do recurring costs typically occur?

a. Planning

b. Selecting and Initiating

c. Closing and Realizing

d. Executing

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Which of these is an example of an expedited cost?

a. The team completes a major deliverable within the normal 40 hour work week.

b. New computers are delivered per the agreed dates in the executed purchasing agreement.

c. Production work is halted in the factory due to lack of inventory, and management pays for overnight delivery of additional material.

d. Summer months are slow for the company so management establishes summer hours, where everyone gets Friday afternoons off.

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__________ estimates are often used to seek initial project charter approval.

a. Budget

b. Order of Magnitude

c. Definitive

d. Parametric

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Aisha, an experienced project manager, has successfully managed many new build-outs of office space for her east coast company. Her manager announced today that they will be expanding operations to the Midwest. The company had already signed a lease for 5,000 square feet of office space in Cincinnati, and the offices had to be up and running in 3 months. He asked Aisha for a cost estimate for this construction by the end of the day. How can she come up with a credible estimate so quickly?

a. Tell the manager that you can't come up with an estimate in a few hours.

b. Ask the manager questions about the new office space to understand the impacted departments that will be located there, the level of finishes desired, etc. then use the budgets of previous similar projects as a guideline.

c. Create a work breakdown structure by using another previous project and create a bottom-up estimate for each work package.

d. Go through all office buildouts for the past five years. Calculate an average construction cost per square foot and multiply the 5,000 square feet by this cost per square feet to calculate the budget.

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Which of these methods of estimating can produce the most accurate estimate?

a. Parametric

b. Analogous

c. Bottom-up

d. Rolling wave

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Which of these is NOT an example of supporting detail pertaining to cost estimates?

a. Description of the project scope

b. Method used to create the estimate

c. Assumptions and constraints

d. Schedule milestones

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Jim, a project manager for a manufacturing company, is responsible for getting bids for two sophisticated pieces of equipment that will be installed on the factory floor. He has distributed the detailed specifications to a number of vendors, and is waiting for the bid responses. When analyzing the vendor's bids, Jim can do all of the following to determine if the vendor's bid prices appear to be reasonable EXCEPT:

a. Compare the bids and assume that the lowest responsible offer is fair.

b. Review industry publications to determine if the prices are in line with industry standards.

c. Select one of the lower-priced vendors with a good reputation and negotiate with them for the best price.

d. Implement activity-based costing.

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__________ is defined as a formal, structured process that is aimed at increasing the value or productivity of a work element while minimizing the cost.

a. Vendor bid analysis

b. Life cycle costing

c. Value engineering

d. Time value of money

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The time value of money is relevant to project management because:

a. The project manager must balance the timing of project cash inflows and outflows.

b. Discounting the value of future revenue and cost streams enables better project decisions.

c. Schedule and cost are interrelated, and use the same estimating tools.

d. As time passes on a project, money is spent.

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During risk analysis for a routine project, ____ percent of money should be put into management reserves, while for an unusual project, ____ percent should be reserved.

a. 5 percent, 20 percent

b. 5 percent, 30 percent

c. 10 percent, 20 percent

d. 10 percent, 30 percent

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What is used to compare actual project spending with planned expenditures to determine if corrective action is needed?

a. Cost Baseline

b. Critical Path

c. Cost Estimate

d. Cost Management Plan

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A fixed cost is described as __________.

a. A cost that is necessary to keep the organization running, but is not associated with one specific project.

b. A cost that only occurs because of the project and is often classified as either labor or other costs.

c. A cost that remains the same regardless of the size or volume of work.

d. A cost that varies with volume of use.

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An example of a nonrecurring cost is _________.

a. Cost of writing code

b. Cost of laying bricks

c. Developing a design that guides the team, once approved

d. Cost of running an assembly line in a factory

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Which of the scenarios below is NOT an example of an assumption that may arise when estimating the cost of direct labor?

a. Workers will be paid for 40 hours per week whether or not there is enough work for them to do.

b. Workers are already familiar with the technology being used on the project.

c. Workers will be paid at the prevailing wage rate of $14 per hour.

d. Only in-house workers will be used.

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The purpose of risk management is to eliminate all project risk.  a. True  b. False

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When the impact of an event is negative, it is considered a risk; when the impact is positive, the event is considered an opportunity.  a. True  b. False

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The cost per risk for risks discovered early in the project is often more than the cost per risk for risks discovered late because there is more opportunity for the risk to impact several dimensions of the project.  a. True  b. False

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When complete, the risk register presents the results of both qualitative and quantitative risk analysis as well as risk response planning.  a. True  b. False

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In Agile projects early risk planning, assessment and response planning is done at a high level, and more detailed and timely risk management occurs during the planning of each subsequent iteration, in daily stand-up meetings, and in retrospectives at the end of each iteration.  a. True  b. False

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The primary questions project teams use in qualitative risk analysis are "how likely is this risk to happen?", and "if it does happen, how big will the impact be?"  a. True  b. False

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Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives.  a. True  b. False

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In some cases, project teams will elect to reduce a threat to a level that a sponsor and other stakeholders deem acceptable, rather than eliminate it completely.  a. True  b. False

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Risk response strategies such as accept risk and research risk apply to both threats and opportunities.  a. True  b. False

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Risk response strategy decisions should reflect a thorough understanding of the priorities that key stakeholders have for cost, schedule, scope, and quality.  a. True  b. False

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A ________ presents a hierarchical organization of risks based on categories such as operational, strategic, finance, external, and project management.

a. Decision Tree

b. Risk Register

c. Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS)

d. Risk Management Plan

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All of the following criteria can be used to categorize project risks EXCEPT:

a. whether the risk is internal or external to the performing organization

b. the project objective that may be impacted by the risk (cost, schedule, scope and / or quality)

c. whether the risk is a known known

d. when it occurs in the project life cycle

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Which of the following describes the activities appropriately performed by the project team during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis?

a. Team members develop contingency plans for all risks to avoid adverse impacts to project objectives.

b. Team members define how to conduct risk management activities for the project.

c. Team members identify potential risk events.

d. Team members assess the probability of occurrence and severity of impact for identified risks.

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All of the following describe the appropriate application of Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis in project management EXCEPT:

a. Quantitative techniques are used when it is critical to predict the probability of completing a project on time or within budget with confidence.

b. Brainstorming techniques are used by the team and other stakeholders to identify as many project risks as possible.

c. Large, complex and expensive projects stand to benefit from the additional rigor of quantitative risk analysis techniques.

d. Decision Tree Analysis and Simulation techniques such as Monte Carlo Analysis are examples of useful quantitative risk analysis techniques.

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Which of the following describes how the team uses a cause-and-effect diagram to support project risk analysis?

a. Team members are encouraged to keep asking "when?" to break down risks into more detailed causes.

b. The team organizes assumptions and constraints in a fishbone pattern.

c. The team lists the risk as the "effect" in a box at the head of a fish, then names the big bones.

d. The project team begins by identifying strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats.

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Figure 10-1 Excerpt from Internet Project Risk Register



Consider the excerpt of the Internet Project risk register presented in Figure 10-1. Which of the following risk events should receive the highest priority for the development of risk responses?

a. C - IS resources are spread too thin

b. B - web infrastructure lacks sufficient transaction capacity

c. D - The intranet site suffers a security breach

d. A - project requires new technology and support structure

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Which of the following quantitative risk analysis techniques is used to determine which risks have the most powerful impact on the project, with results displayed in the form of a tornado diagram?

a. Expected Monetary Value (EMV)

b. Sensitivity Analysis

c. Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA)

d. Simulation Techniques such as Monte Carlo Analysis

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All of the following describe an appropriate application of Plan Risk Responses in project management EXCEPT:

a. The expectations of the sponsor and key stakeholders should influence the risk responses that are developed.

b. Risk response planning should address both opportunities and threats.

c. Often multiple strategies are identified for a single risk.

d. Responses should be created for every identified project risk, regardless of the risk score.

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All of the following are among the classic risk response strategies EXCEPT:

a. enhance an opportunity

b. share a threat

c. avoid a threat

d. transfer a threat

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Which of the following activities illustrates a risk response strategy designed to research a threat or an opportunity?

a. identify a risk owner to each high priority risk

b. establish time or cost contingencies

c. construct a prototype to learn more about a candidate solution

d. establish triggers and update them frequently

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A negative impact is known as a (n) ______, while a positive impact is known as a (n) __________.

a. Issue, Benefit

b. Issue, Opportunity

c. Threat, Opportunity

d. Threat, Benefit

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Who should be involved in identifying potential risks for a project?

a. Sponsor

b. Project Manager

c. Team

d. Everyone

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Which of these is NOT one of the typical project success measures?

a. Meeting Agreements

b. Quality Improvements

c. Performing Organization's Success

d. Project Team's Success

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Risks are typically discovered during which stage(s) of a project?

a. Initiating

b. Initiating & Planning

c. Initiating, Planning & Executing

d. Initiating, Planning, Executing and Closing

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Relative to the project life cycle, when is the cost per risk discovered typically highest?

a. Initiating

b. Planning

c. Executing

d. Closing

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What does a SWOT Analysis examine?

a. Strengths, Weaknesses, Options, and Threats

b. Strengths, Warnings, Opportunities and Threats

c. Scenarios, Weaknesses, Opportunities and Threats

d. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities and Threats

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A _________ is an analytical technique to ascertain the fundamental reason or reasons that affect one or more variances, defects or risks.

a. SWOT Analysis

b. Root Cause Analysis

c. Delphi Technique

d. Brainstorming Technique

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All of these are ways of categorizing project risks EXCEPT:

a. When they occur in the project life cycle.

b. Who identified the risk.

c. What project objective may be impacted (scope, time, cost, etc.)

d. Whether the risk is internal or external to the organization.

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A key supplier of materials for your project has not been returning your calls or responding to your e-mails. This is an example of a ________, which indicates that a risk is likely to occur.

a. Bad business relationship

b. Trigger condition

c. Risk avoidance

d. Risk transfer

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During which risk planning process is each risk assigned a probability and impact score?

a. Plan Risk Management

b. Identify Risks

c. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

d. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

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The risk factor of each risk, determined during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, is derived by ______ the probability and the consequence (impact).

a. Adding

b. Subtracting

c. Multiplying

d. Dividing

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What type of risk analysis is NOT required on all projects?

a. Risk Identification

b. Qualitative Risk Analysis

c. Quantitative Risk Analysis

d. Risk Response Planning

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A Fortune 100 company is about to undertake a $30 million construction project to build a new office building. As a condition of hiring a general contractor to build the property, they require the contractor to secure a performance bond to guarantee their work and performance under this construction contract. This is an example of _______ project risk.

a. Avoiding

b. Mitigating

c. Transferring

d. Accepting

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All of the following information is typically contained in the risk register EXCEPT:

a. Risk response strategy

b. Risk owner

c. Probability of occurrence

d. Date risk identified

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In the risk register, why should one person be designated as the "owner" of the risk?

a. So they can be congratulated when the risk is mitigated.

b. So they can be blamed if the risk is triggered and causes major project problems.

c. So that they can be responsible for determining if it's about to be triggered, and implementing the strategy.

d. So that they will be responsible for administering the contingency and management reserves.

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Crosby, a well known quality management thought leader, asserts that quality is meeting requirements, not exceeding them.  a. True  b. False

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Stakeholder satisfaction consists of identifying all stakeholders and understanding the stakeholders' ultimate quality goals using a structured process to determine relevant quality standards.  a. True  b. False

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DMAIC is typically used as a method of implementing continuous improvement and can thus be practiced repeatedly.  a. True  b. False

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Just as total quality dramatically changed general management in the 1990s, agile is dramatically changing project management in the 2010s.  a. True  b. False

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The purpose of process control is to be able to have confidence that outputs are predictable.  a. True  b. False

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The quality management plan defines the acceptable level of quality, which is typically defined by the customer, and describes how the project will ensure this level of quality in its deliverables and work processes.  a. True  b. False

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If necessary, the quality policy on a specific project may violate either the quality policies of the parent organization or of a major customer.  a. True  b. False

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Process Analysis is a step-by-step breakdown of the phases of a process, used to determine the inputs, outputs, and operations that take place during each phase.  a. True  b. False

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A high level view of processes and stakeholders, that starts with suppliers and ends with customers, is sometimes referred to as a "Plan-Do-Check-Act" (PDCA) model.  a. True  b. False

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The formality of a kick-off meeting can vary considerably depending on the size and type of project.  a. True  b. False

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Joseph Juran provided guidance regarding how to conduct quality planning, quality control, and quality improvement. Which of the following items is NOT part of Juran's Quality Trilogy?

a. select and support improvement projects, select and implement solutions, and maintain control of improved processes.

b. work to identify root causes, not just symptoms

c. determine what to control, establish measurement systems, establish standards and compare performance to standards.

d. identify all customers and their needs, develop requirements, and develop methods to satisfy those requirements.

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All of the following items are among the key areas covered by the Malcolm Baldrige National Quality Award EXCEPT:

a. Team Learning

b. Leadership

c. Customer focus

d. Strategic planning

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DMAIC is a disciplined process that includes five phases: Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve and Control. DMAIC is most typically associated with which of the following quality improvement approaches?

a. ISO 9001:2008

b. Six Sigma

c. Malcolm Baldrige

d. Total Quality Management (TQM)

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The four contemporary core project quality concepts that evolved from the quality gurus and frameworks include which of the following?

a. stakeholder satisfaction

b. earned value management

c. assumption-based management

d. benchmarking

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The decision process for developing relevant quality standards on a project includes all of the following activities EXCEPT:

a. identify all stakeholders

b. design work systems

c. make tradeoff decisions

d. understand the prioritized stakeholders' requirements

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Normal or random variations that are considered part of operating the system at its current capability are ______:

a. common cause variations.

b. life cycle variations

c. special cause variations.

d. systemic variations.

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All of the following statements accurately describe special cause variation EXCEPT:

a. It requires specific interventions that include finding the root causes and making changes.

b. It is identified by points outside the control limits or by unusual patterns within the limits.

c. It is a statistically unlikely event.

d. It is inherent in the system and is predictable.

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Which of the following documents describes how the project team will implement the performing organization's quality policy?

a. quality control plan

b. quality audit plan

c. quality benchmarking plan

d. quality management plan

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After completing detailed planning for a project, it is often helpful for the project manager and team to apply a sanity test to the project plan. Which of the following accurately describes the application of a sanity test?

a. It focuses on whether the project charter should be changed

b. It is primarily focused on the team members.

c. It should include questions to ensure budgets, schedules and resource plans are reasonable and achievable.

d. It is based largely on the expectations of supervisors and sponsors.

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Which of the following serves as a pre-condition that must be met in order for a project kick-off meeting to be successful?

a. An atmosphere of trust and relationship building should be set by all.

b. The meeting location should always be off-site

c. Project performance results should be calculated and made available to team members.

d. Compensation packages and benefits plans should be shared with all team members.

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______ is the name of the process that identifies which quality standards are relevant to the project and how to comply with them.

a. Fact-Based Management

b. Plan Quality Management

c. ISO 9001:2008

d. Manage Quality

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_____ was the influential thought leader in the area of quality who created the Profound Knowledge System.

a. Joseph Juran

b. W. Edwards Deming

c. Taguchi

d. Crosby

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________ is best known for creating the Quality Trilogy.

a. Joseph Juran

b. Ishikawa

c. Harrington

d. Senge

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Which of these is NOT one of the key areas covered by Total Quality Management (TQM), developed in the 1980's on the premise that the old way of trying to catch quality problems by inspection was not adequate?

a. Strategic Planning

b. Customer Focus

c. Process Management

d. Project Management

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Six Sigma uses a 15-step, disciplined process called the ________ process to plan and manage improvement projects.

a. SIPOC

b. TQM

c. DMAIC

d. ISO 9001:2008

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The term ______________ is defined as "the characteristics of a product or service that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needs."

a. Value

b. Six Sigma

c. Customer satisfaction

d. Project quality

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Which of these is NOT an example of an external stakeholder?

a. The public

b. Functional areas within the organization

c. Customers

d. Suppliers

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Which of these is NOT one of the four core project quality concepts?

a. Vendor satisfaction

b. Process management

c. Fact-based management

d. Empowered performance

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Which of these is NOT one of the reasons that it is better to design quality into a process than to find problems upon inspection?

a. It costs more to make junk and then remake it to obtain good outputs.

b. Having to do rework aggravates time pressure on projects.

c. Because of the saying that the team should meet expectations but exceed requirements.

d. Even the best inspectors do not find every mistake, and some mistakes are likely to reach customers.

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Which of these is NOT one of the steps of the PDCA model?

a. Plan

b. Deliver

c. Check

d. Act

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A ____________ variation is the result of the product design and the method of making it and is exhibited by a random pattern within predictable limits.

a. Six sigma variation

b. Special cause variation

c. Root cause variation

d. Common cause variation

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________ is defined as an executing process that is primarily concerned with overall process improvements to ensure that each time a deliverable is produced it is error free.

a. Manage Quality

b. Control Quality

c. Perform Quality Assurance

d. Plan Quality Management

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All of these are primary quality control activities EXCEPT:

a. Inspection

b. Deliverable peer reviews

c. Quality audits

d. Testing process

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Project kickoff meetings are conducted for many reasons. All of these are reasons for conducting a project kickoff meeting EXCEPT:

a. To allow all project stakeholders to express their needs and desires.

b. To enable the project manager to use their influence to get everyone excited about the project.

c. To document the lessons learned for the project.

d. To allow all key stakeholders to see how all the pieces of the project fit together.

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_________ marks the transition between the planning and executing project phases.

a. Baselined project management plan

b. Quality management plan

c. Quality baseline

d. Process Improvement plan

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Supply chain operations require managerial processes that span across functional areas within individual organizations, and link trading partners and customers across organizational boundaries.  a. True  b. False

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During procurement planning, the project team determines which needs can best be met by acquiring products and services from an outside provider, and which can be accomplished by the team.  a. True  b. False

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Outputs of Plan Procurement Management include the procurement management plan and procurement statement of work.  a. True  b. False

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On complex projects, despite the importance of factors such as technical capability, managerial capability and previous experience; the selection decision is made mostly or entirely on price.  a. True  b. False

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In many cases, the proposal prepared by the vendor becomes a part of the final contract.  a. True  b. False

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A contract is a unilateral, binding document that obligates the seller to furnish supplies or services to the buyer.  a. True  b. False

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Contract incentives are often used when the buyer wants the seller to meet some defined project metrics, such as finishing the project early, providing a higher level of quality or more features, or anything else that the buyer wants to maximize and is willing to pay for.  a. True  b. False

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Fixed price contracts provide low risk for the seller, since the buyer will pay a fixed price, regardless of how much the project actually costs the seller.  a. True  b. False

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One of the important factors that should influence the selection of contract type is how the risk is distributed between the buyer and the seller, and how the project is performed.  a. True  b. False

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Project partnerships can be advantageous to both the client and the vendor, in terms of improved project execution, flexibility, and reduced bid administration.  a. True  b. False

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All of the following statements accurately describe supply chain management EXCEPT:

a. It is a closed-loop system solely within the project organization's boundaries.

b. It spans across suppliers and producers, resellers, project organizations and consumers.

c. It is a system's approach to managing the entire flow of physical products.

d. It addresses the flow of material, service, monetary and information across supply chain partners.

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Which of the following is one of the PMBOK Guide's three project procurement management processes?

a. Plan supply chain management

b. Conduct procurements

c. Manage logistics

d. Conduct Make-or-Buy Analysis

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The procurement management plan:

a. describes how a project team will acquire goods and services from outside the performing organization.

b. describes how supply chain partners will be managed.

c. describes how the procurement division will be managed.

d. describes how sellers will be audited by the procurement team.

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The ________ documents the portion of work to be purchased, in enough detail so potential suppliers can decide if they feel they are capable of and interested in providing it.

a. request for information

b. request for quotation

c. purchase order

d. procurement statement of work

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Often a project team will start the selection process by establishing a list of potential suppliers. All of the following information sources are frequently used to identify these potential suppliers EXCEPT:

a. sales personnel

b. stakeholder register

c. trade shows

d. supplier catalogs or websites

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Under normal conditions, which of these contract types poses the greatest risk to the buyer?

a. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Firm (FPIF)

b. Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)

c. Time and Material (T&M)

d. Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee (CPFF)

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All of the following accurately describe the features and characteristics of a contract EXCEPT:

a. A contract obligates the seller to provide a specified product or service.

b. The project organization is always a buyer in a contract arrangement

c. A contract binds both the seller and the buyer.

d. A contract obligates the buyer to pay for a specified product or service.

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Which party to a contract absorbs the majority of cost risk when a Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP) contract is used?

a. the insurer

b. the cost risk is equally shared.

c. the buyer

d. the seller

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Which of the following types of contracts involves payment to the seller for the seller's actual approved costs of completed work, plus a fee typically representing the seller's profit?

a. direct cost contract

b. fixed-price contract

c. equitable adjustment contract

d. cost-reimbursable contract

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Project partnerships offer all of the following advantages to vendors EXCEPT:

a. Clearly stated expected outcome

b. More dependable stream of work

c. Buyer gains at the vendor's expense

d. Greater potential profit

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The word "determine" has multiple meanings that can help a project manager understand if their project is progressing adequately. Which of the answers below is NOT one of the five aspects of project determination?

a. To decide the course of

b. To limit in scope

c. To delegate responsibility

d. To come to a conclusion or resolution

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Which of the answers below is NOT one of the categories of internal project issues?

a. Project work

b. Risks

c. Adequate communication

d. Quality

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The project work to be performed can come from the WBS and other sources. Which of these is NOT a source that could trigger authorized work?

a. Corrective actions

b. Scope creep

c. Defect repairs

d. Preventive actions

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The project work to be performed can come from the WBS and other sources. Which of these is NOT a source that could trigger authorized work?

a. Corrective actions

b. Scope creep

c. Defect repairs

d. Preventive actions

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All of the following project team members should serve on a project change control board EXCEPT:

a. Sponsor

b. Project Manager

c. Supplier

d. Core Team

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Which of these is NOT a resolution strategy for risks within project control?

a. Isolate problems and reschedule other activities

b. Increase overtime to stay on schedule

c. Carefully escalate problems

d. Understand and control WBS

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Which of these time periods is NOT discussed by each core team member in the daily agile 15 minute standup meeting?

a. What was accomplished yesterday.

b. What will be accomplished today.

c. What obstacle(s) might prevent me from accomplishing work in the near future.

d. What I plan to accomplish in the next release.

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A project manager can interpret several things from data displayed in a histogram. If something unusual is happening, the histogram might be ___________.

a. Flat

b. Skewed

c. Bell-shaped

d. S-shaped

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Which of these quality management and control tools is customized for each application after deciding exactly what data will be useful in understanding, controlling, and improving a process?

a. Pareto chart

b. Control chart

c. Check sheet

d. Cause and effect diagram

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The highest bar on a Pareto chart often becomes the "head of the fish" in the ____________.

a. Control chart

b. Run chart

c. Histogram

d. Ishikawa diagram

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All of these are types of variation to look for in a Run Chart EXCEPT:

a. Trend up or down

b. Trend sideways

c. Repeating pattern

d. Abrupt changes

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The Earned Value formula for Schedule Variance (SV) is:

a. SV = EV - AC

b. SV = EV / PV

c. SV = BAC - EV

d. SV = EV - PV

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The __________ is calculated using the formula EV / AC

a. Estimate at Completion

b. Budget at Completion

c. Schedule Performance Index

d. Cost Performance Index

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What should your first reaction be if a customer asks for a change to your project scope baseline?

a. Call the team together and replan the project to accommodate the new scope.

b. Try to get the customer to accept the original project objectives without changing the scope.

c. Document the scope changes and process them through the integrated change control system for approval.

d. Emphatically tell the customer "no".

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____________ is accomplished by reviewing all change proposals, estimating their impact on project goals wherever appropriate, approving or declining changes, and managing changes to deliverables, schedules, budgets, and the project management plan.

a. Steering control

b. Perform integrated change control

c. Go/no-go control

d. Monitoring and controlling project work

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Sometimes a project is terminated before its normal completion.  a. True  b. False

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Early termination can be either for default or for the convenience of the seller.  a. True  b. False

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When a project is no longer needed or viable, the project manager, as primary advocate for the project, should recommend early termination.  a. True  b. False

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The Validate Scope process occurs with interim deliverables throughout the project and with final deliverables near the end.  a. True  b. False

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Many organizations use project closeout checklists that itemize typical project activities and/or deliverables. These can be used to assign responsibility to each item concerning project closeout.  a. True  b. False

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On long projects it is often better to capture lessons frequently since people may not remember clearly what happened several months previously.  a. True  b. False

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A method for documenting and sharing lessons must be established in order for an organization to capitalize on lessons learned.  a. True  b. False

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Some project sponsors will only approve a project charter if it includes and reflects lessons learned from other recently completed projects.  a. True  b. False

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Helping good workers to secure good follow-on work is one of the most important things a project manager must do near the end of the project.  a. True  b. False

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Since projects are temporary in nature and the project team disbands upon completion, it is not necessary for project managers to provide ongoing support in the form of training, change management, and/or other services.  a. True  b. False

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All of the following reasons might lead to a contract termination for default EXCEPT:

a. a loss of confidence in the contractor performing the project

b. changing customer priorities

c. problems associated with the project schedule

d. problems associated with the project cost

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Which of the following reasons might lead to an early contract termination for convenience?

a. The seller faces unexpected difficulties.

b. The buyer faces changing priorities.

c. The seller needs change.

d. The buyer and seller negotiate a settlement

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When a project is completed on time, the project team must accomplish all of the following activities EXCEPT:

a. secure customer feedback and approval

b. capture and share lessons learned

c. plan a smooth transition of deliverables into ongoing operations

d. use alternative dispute resolution

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The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables is known as:

a. system turnover.

b. control scope

c. product acceptance.

d. validate scope

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Which of the following is true concerning lessons learned on a project?

a. Lessons learned are only identified at the end of the project after learning has occurred.

b. Lessons learned can only be gathered from project team members.

c. Lessons learned are always provided by the customer.

d. Lessons learned are the useful knowledge gained by project team members as they perform the project.

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All of the following practices have proven effective for managing lessons learned in an organization EXCEPT:

a. creation of databases, shared folders or wikis that all workers can easily access.

b. documenting all lessons learned only at the end of the project.

c. coding of lessons learned to facilitate searches by future teams.

d. assignment of a lessons learned database "owner" who reviews new lessons and incorporates into existing lessons.

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Closure of a project generally entails all of the following activities EXCEPT:

a. ensuring all resources have been reassigned

b. ensuring all documentation is complete

c. updating the project management plan

d. ensuring all work has been accomplished

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A project team attempting to close a project should review all of the following documents to ensure that everything promised was delivered EXCEPT:

a. the project charter

b. the work breakdown structure

c. the project schedule

d. the stakeholder register

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A project team attempting to close a project should review which of the following to ensure the customers are satisfied with the project work?

a. the customer feedback and scope verification

b. the communication plan

c. the project organization chart

d. the project charter

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Many organizations require the completion of a project close-out report upon completion of a project. These reports typically include which of the following?

a. a list of team members dismissed due to poor performance

b. review of team building exercises

c. transcripts of team member conversations

d. a review of the project's original justification

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