1. A project is a time-bound
effort constrained by performance specifications, resources, and budget to
create a unique product or service.
a. True
b. False
2. Operations
consist of the ongoing work needed to ensure that an organization continues to
function effectively.
a. True
b. False
3. A project manager
needs to be concerned with achieving desired scope and quality (often called
performance), subject to constraints of time and cost.
a. True
b. False
4. Many different
project life cycle models are used for different types of projects, such as
information systems, improvement, research and development, and construction.
a. True
b. False
5. Generally,the
pace of work and amount of money spent remains consistent from one life cycle
stage to another.
a. True
b. False
6. The name and
number of phases in a project life cycle are determined by the organization(s)
involved in the project.
a. True
b. False
7. Communications
Management, one of the ten PMBOK Guide Knowledge Areas, entails the processes
to identify the people, groups, or organizations, that could impact or be
impacted by the project, analyze their expectations and impact, and develop
strategies for engaging them in project decisions and execution.
a. True
b. False
8. The only critical
measures of project success are completing the project on schedule and on
budget.
a. True
b. False
9. In agile
projects, the customer representative role is passive, and their involvement is
typically limited to the early stages of the project.
a. True
b. False
10.The Project
Management Office (PMO) is comprised of the top leader in the organization (CEO
or other officer) and his or her direct reports.
a. True
b. False
11. Which of the following
examples is NOT a typical or appropriate situation to employ
project management?
a. processing deposits and
withdrawals in a bank
b. improving a soldering process in an assembly line
c. installing a new accounting application on a server
d. developing a new medical device for use by
clinics
12. In an adaptive or change - driven project life
cycle:
a. the product is well understood.
b. all planning precedes all executing.
c. the waterfall approach is commonly used.
d. early results lead into
planning later work.
13. Which of the following statements correctly
describes project management?
a. Project management's goal is to maintain efficiency of ongoing
operations.
b. Project management should not involve tradeoffs between scope,
schedule and cost.
c. Project management only relies upon checklists to plan and
execute the work.
d. Project management uses
knowledge, skills, tools and techniques to meet stakeholder needs and
expectations
14. Which of the following
statements regarding project life cycles is most accurate?
a. Many different project
life cycle models are used for different types of projects.
b. All research and development projects use the same four-stage
project life cycle model.
c. Project life cycles are very similar regardless of the industry.
d. The project life cycle is the same for the
diverse types of projects managed by an organization.
15. Which of the ten knowledge
areas defined in the Project Management Body of Knowledge includes the
processes required to ensure that the project includes all the work required,
and only the work required, to complete the project successfully?
a. Scope management
b. Quality management
c. Communications management
d. Stakeholder management
16. Achieving project success is
determined by all of the following EXCEPT:
a. involving only
important key stakeholders
b. completing the project on schedule and on budget
c. creating deliverables that include all required features
d. providing outputs that please the project's
customers
17. Projects are considered successful for all of
the reasons below EXCEPT:
a. organizational learning takes place and is captured for future
projects
b. the performing organization reaps business-level benefits.
c. the team has used
heroics to meet project objectives
d. members of the team learn new skills and/or refine existing
skills
18. Project failure can result from all of the
following causes EXCEPT:
a. incomplete or unclear requirements
b. unrealistic time demands
c. adequate support from
executive management
d. inadequate planning
19. A project manager in agile projects who serves
and leads in a collaborative, facilitating manner is called a:
a. sponsor
b. scrum master
c. functional manager
d. program manager
20. From an agile project management perspective,
which of these constraints are considered to be fixed?
a. Quality and value
b. Customer satisfaction
c. Scope and time
d. Resources and schedule
chapter-2-assignment
1. The first part of setting strategic direction for
an organization is to analyze the external and internal environments by
preparing a SWOT (Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities and Threats) analysis.
Once the SWOT is complete, the next step is to create a clear and compelling
statement describing the inspirational long-term desired change resulting from
an organization's work, called a __________.
a. Mission Statement
b. Vision Statement
c. Triple Bottom Line Statement
d. Business Case
2. All of these would typically be included in a
mission statement EXCEPT:
a. Organization's core values
b. Organization's beliefs
c. Organization's
financial goals
d. Organization's customers
3. In the Build Green Home example of a SWOT analysis,
factors including existing thinking on green building and its niche focus,
building schedule, and community (location) rumors are all examples of
__________.
a. Strengths
b. Weaknesses
c. Opportunities
d. Threats
4.The most widely accepted financial model for
selecting projects is _________:
a. Internal Rate of Return (IRR)
b. Net Present Value (NPV)
c. Payback Period (PP)
d. Benefit-Cost Ratio (BCR)
5. Which of these is NOT a
disadvantage of using a financial model for project evaluation and selection?
a. Payback period (PP) models do not consider the amount of profit
that may be generated after the costs are paid.
b. BCR (Benefit Cost Ratio) does not account for intangible benefits
and costs that cannot be determined in financial terms.
c. Internal Rate of Return (IRR) can favor smaller projects that
create less total value for the firm but have high percentage returns.
d. Use of financial models
ensures that selected projects make sense from a cost and return on
investment perspective.
6. All of these are advantages of using a scoring
model for selecting projects EXCEPT:
a. Scoring models are useful whenever there are multiple projects
and several criteria to be considered.
b. Scoring models help ensure alignment with the organization's
strategic goals.
c. By comparing expected
project costs to expected benefits, scoring models can be used to make
project investment decisions.
d. Scoring models can define mandatory decision criteria for project
selection.
7. Which of these is NOT an
example of types of projects that the organization might include in their
portfolio of projects?
a. High-and low-risk projects
b. Short and long-term projects
c. Projects with positive
and negative net present value (NPV)
d. Projects to create new products and projects
to incrementally improve existing products
8. Who should be involved in identifying potential
projects?
a. Executives
b. Program Managers
c. Functional Managers
d. Employees at all Levels
9. Examples of these types of project selection
criteria include government regulations and clear safety or security
situations.
a. Probability of success
b. Expected return on investment
c. Mandatory criteria
d. Project fit with organizational objectives
10. In a project scoring model, each decision criterion
is given a __________.
a. Relative weight
b. Relative cost
c. Relative benefit
d. Statement of work
11. The benefit of performing a sensitivity analysis
while using a scoring model to choose projects is:
a. It examines at all project risk factors / variables at once.
b. It identifies the opportunity costs associated with the project.
c. It shows the urgency of different project priorities.
d. It allows management to
examine what would happen to a decision if factors were to change
12. If several projects have close scores as the result
of a scoring model, what can be done to break the virtual tie?
a. Perform a sensitivity
analysis to examine what would happen to the decision if factors changed
b. Use a cost-benefit model to select projects
c. Use a SWOT analysis to select projects
d. Prepare a business case
13. Contractor companies might
perform a quick SWOT analysis prior to bidding on a potential project,
including all of the considerations below EXCEPT:
a. How well the potential project meets contractor objectives
b. Risks of pursuing vs. not pursuing the project
c. Weighted score for the
project
d. The contractor's capability to perform the
work if awarded
14. Source selection criteria for selecting a
contractor might include: production capacity, business size and type, past
performance, and references. These are all examples of typical criteria within
which category?
a. Financial
b. Operational
c. Technical
d. Management
15. Which of these would NOT be one of
the things that may be negotiated between a client company and a contractor
company?
a. Schedule
b. Quality standards
c. Personnel to be assigned to the project
d. Source selection
criteria
chapeter-3test
1. The project charter
serves as a formal legal contract between the project team and the project
sponsor.
a. True
b. False
2. In contrast to a
legal contract, the parties to a signed project charter feel obligated to the
spirit (as opposed to the letter) of the charter since the project details have
not yet been worked out and the specifics will certainly change.
a. True
b. False
3. A charter can be
used to quickly screen out obviously poor projects.
a. True
b. False
4. A project charter
can vary in its length from one-page to multiple pages, depending on the size
and complexity of the project.
a. True
b. False
5. A well-written
business case should persuade decision-makers to support the project and
inspire the project team members and key stakeholders to work hard towards
successful completion of the project.
a. True
b. False
6. The project
business case provides a high-level description of what the project will
accomplish and how it will be done.
a. True
b. False
7. The project master
network is a high-level plan that indicates a few significant accomplishments
that are anticipated over the life of the project.
a. True
b. False
8. A key concept in
agile projects is that something of value will be delivered at each iteration.
a. True
b. False
9. Risks, assumptions
and constraints are included in the project charter so that key participants
will be aware of what could prevent them from successfully completing the
project.
a. True
b. False
10. During project charter creation
there is typically a very general understanding of the project, so any budget
included is approximate and should be called a preliminary budget with a
corresponding confidence level for this estimate.
a. True
b. False
11. The project charter grants the project team the right
to:
a. begin project execution
b. create a detailed
project plan
c. write a detailed business case
d. develop the project mission statement
12. The project charter serves all of
the following purposes EXCEPT:
a. describes skill sets
needed for the project
b. quickly screens out obviously poor projects
c. authorizes the project manager to proceed
d. helps develop a common understanding between
the project manager, sponsor and assigned team members
13. During iteration planning in an agile project,
agreement is reached regarding:
a. the length of the next sprint.
b. detailed stakeholder requirements.
c. the definition of done.
d. positive and negative risks.
14. Which of the following charter
elements defines the project purpose and justifies the necessity of the
project?
a. acceptance criteria
b. scope control plan
c. business case
d. scope overview
15. The milestone schedule in the project charter:
a. is a detailed schedule that shows the planned duration for every
activity in the project.
b. is a schedule that provides detailed data for when each project
activity should begin.
c. is a summary-level schedule that shows how major project tasks
are sequenced.
d. is a high-level plan
that indicates a few significant accomplishments anticipated over the life
of the project.
16. Project charters typically
include all of the following elements EXCEPT:
a. detailed resource
requirements
b. project constraints
c. negative and positive risks
d. project assumptions
17. Team operating principles are sometimes included in
a project charter to enhance team performance. Which of the following
statements accurately describes the value of establishing team operating
principles?
a. Operating principles describe the specific work each team member
will perform.
b. Operating principles are especially helpful for a routine project
where participants have worked together before.
c. Operating principles identify the rules along with the
punishments to be administered when the rules are broken.
d. Operating principles
increase team effectiveness and ensure that all parties are aware of what
is expected.
18. A project sponsor is wise not to
sign a project charter authorizing work until the project manager and team show
that they have ____:
a. learned to work together well.
b. reviewed lessons
learned from recently completed projects in order to avoid similar
mistakes.
c. prepared a comprehensive schedule and budget.
d. gathered requirements from key stakeholders.
19. Which of the following statements accurately
describes the responsibilities typically associated with the development of the
project charter?
a. more often than not,
the project manager writes the draft project charter.
b. the project manager typically prepares the business case and
scope overview.
c. the project sponsor typically prepares the detailed first draft
of the charter.
d. the customer typically prepares and signs the charter.
20. On agile projects the first
iteration is planned as a milestone with acceptance criteria. However,
subsequent milestones and acceptance criteria are determined on a ___:
a. just in time (JIT)
basis
b. need-to-know basis
c. first come first served basis
d. first in first out (FIFO) basis
Chapter 3 Assignment
1. What is the definition of a project charter?
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2. All of the statements below accurately describe what an effective project charter should accomplish,EXCEPT:
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3. A project charter is similar to a contract in many ways, but there are some differences between the two documents. How are project charters different from contracts?
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4. The right length for a typical project charter is generally _________.
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5. The signing of the project charter marks the transition between which two phases of the project life cycle?
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6. The rough draft of the project charter is typically written by _______.
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7. This element of the project charter can be considered to define the project boundaries – it states what is included and what is not included, at a fairly high level.
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8. This is defined as an incremental increase in the work of a project without corresponding adjustments to resources, budget or schedule.
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9. Adding a background section to a project charter would be helpful in what way?
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10. Tracy is working with the project sponsor to create the project charter for a small to medium sized project. In the Milestone Schedule with Acceptance Criteria section of the project charter, how many intermediate milestones should she and the team include?
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11. All but one of these is a type of resource that might be included in the Resources Needed section of the charter. Which type of resource would typically NOT be included?
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12. Which of these is NOT one of the three reasons that project managers and teams should look at risk when creating the project charter?
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13. What are the four columns in a milestone schedule?
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14. With whom may the project manager and team need to negotiate when creating the charter?
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15. In the Scheduling Options section under the Schedule file tab, changing the "new tasks created" option to _____________ will cause the program to calculate the projects' running schedule based on task start and finish dates.
Carlos has just created a new subnet for the finance department. He needs to be able to allow the employees in finance to retrieve files from the sales server, which is located in another subnet. Which of the following OSI model layers would it be necessary to categorize the device into? a. Layer 4 b. Layer 6 c. Layer 2 d. Layer 3 All of the cubicles in a company's office have cables that run up to the ceiling and across to an IDF. Inside the IDF, they connect directly to the latest generation switch available from the networking equipment vendor that they have chosen. Which of the following describes the physical topology most likely in use? a. mesh
Some of the advantages of using time boxes and cycles in project coordination efforts include creating urgency, measuring progress, and allowing for predictable measurements. A) True 2. Even though most project managers are not contract specialists, they need to understand the process well enough to coordinate with the team. For the current assignment, you are looking at a short-term and small effort with a contractor of just a few hours without significant clarity. Which of the following would be the most applicable contract to use in this situation? A) Time and materials 3. The project you are working on has had modifications to the plan from the start and even how the project is run. Project governance covers all of the 3 following except: A) Naming The project manager 4. Of the following, which is most likely a trigger condition defined early in the project? A) Alerting Governance board if 10 percent over schedule 5. Of the following options, which stand
A process or product that is insensitive to normal variation is referred to as being Select one: a. in specification b. capable c. robust d. out of control Feedback Your answer is correct. A completed failure mode and effects analysis (FMEA) results in the following assessment rating. Occurrence = 4 Severity = 8 Detection = 10 What is the risk priority number (RPN) for this FMEA? Select one: a. 42 b. 22 c. 320 d. 120 Feedback Your answer is correct. In a visual inspection situation, one of the best ways to minimize deterioration of the quality level is to: Select one: a. have a program of frequent eye exams. b. retrain the inspector frequently. c. add variety to the task. d. have a standard to compare against as an element of the operation. Feedback Your answer is correct. Which of the following elements is least necessary to a good corrective action feedback report? Select one: a. What caused the failure b. Who caused the failure c. What correction has been made d. Wh
a. True
b. False
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