1.______
is the name of the process that identifies which quality standards are relevant
to the project and how to comply with them.
a. Fact-Based Management
b. Plan Quality Management
c. ISO 9001:2008
d. Manage Quality
2._____
was the influential thought leader in the area of quality who created the
Profound Knowledge System.
a. Joseph Juran
b. W. Edwards Deming
c. Taguchi
d. Crosby
3.________ is best known for creating the Quality
Trilogy.
a. Joseph Juran
b. Ishikawa
c. Harrington
d. Senge
4.Which
of these is NOT one of the key areas covered by Total Quality
Management (TQM), developed in the 1980's on the premise that the old way of
trying to catch quality problems by inspection was not adequate?
a. Strategic Planning
b. Customer Focus
c. Process Management
d.
Project Management
5.Six
Sigma uses a 15-step, disciplined process called the ________ process to plan
and manage improvement projects.
a. SIPOC
b. TQM
c. DMAIC
d. ISO 9001:2008
6. The term ______________ is defined as "the characteristics of a
product or service that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied
needs."
a. Value
b. Six Sigma
c. Customer satisfaction
d.
Project quality
7.Which
of these is NOT an example of an external stakeholder?
a. The public
b.
Functional areas within the organization
c. Customers
d. Suppliers
8.
Which of these
is NOT one of the four core project quality concepts?
a. Vendor satisfaction
b. Process management
c. Fact-based management
d. Empowered performance
9. Which of these is NOT one of the reasons that
it is better to design quality into a process than to find problems
upon inspection?
a. It costs more to make
junk and then remake it to obtain good outputs.
b. Having to do rework
aggravates time pressure on projects.
c. Because of the saying that the team should
meet expectations but exceed requirements.
d. Even the
best inspectors do not find every mistake, and some mistakes are
likely to reach customers.
10.Which of these is NOT one of the steps of
the PDCA model?
a. Plan
b. Deliver
c. Check
d. Act
11. A
____________ variation is the result of the product design and
the method of making it and is exhibited by a random pattern
within predictable limits.
a.
Six sigma variation
b.
Special cause variation
c.
Root cause variation
d.
Common cause variation
12.________ is defined as an executing process
that is primarily concerned with overall process improvements to ensure that
each time a deliverable is produced it is error free.
a. Manage Quality
b. Control Quality
c. Perform Quality Assurance
d. Plan Quality Management
13. All of these are primary quality
control activities EXCEPT:
a. Inspection
b. Deliverable peer reviews
c. Quality audits
d. Testing process
14.
Project kickoff meetings are conducted for many reasons. All of
these are reasons for conducting a project kickoff meeting EXCEPT:
a. To allow all project
stakeholders to express their needs and desires.
b. To enable the project
manager to use their influence to get everyone excited about the
project.
c. To document the lessons learned for the project.
d. To allow
all key stakeholders to see how all the pieces of the project fit
together.
15._________ marks the transition between the
planning and executing project phases.
a.
Baselined project management plan
b. Quality management plan
c. Quality baseline
d. Process Improvement plan
CHAPTER-12 TEST
1.Crosby, a well known quality management thought
leader, asserts that quality is meeting requirements, not exceeding them.
True
False
2.Stakeholder satisfaction consists of identifying
all stakeholders and understanding the stakeholders' ultimate quality goals
using a structured process to determine relevant quality standards.
a.
True
b.
False
3.DMAIC is typically used as a
method of implementing continuous improvement and can thus be practiced
repeatedly.
a.
True
b.
False
4.Just as total
quality dramatically changed general management in the 1990s, agile is
dramatically changing project management in the 2010s.
a.
True
b.
False
5.The purpose of process control is to be
able to have confidence that outputs are predictable.
a.
True
b.
False
6.The quality management plan defines
the acceptable level of quality, which is typically defined by
the customer, and describes how the project will ensure this
level of quality in its deliverables and work processes.
a.
True
b.
False
7.If necessary, the quality
policy on a specific project may violate either the quality
policies of the parent organization or of a major customer.
a.
True
b.
False
8.Process Analysis is
a step-by-step breakdown of the phases of a process, used to determine the
inputs, outputs, and operations that take place during each phase.
a.
True
b.
False
9.A high level view of processes and stakeholders, that starts with suppliers
and ends with customers, is sometimes referred to as a
"Plan-Do-Check-Act" (PDCA) model.
a.
True
b.
False
10.The formality of a kick-off
meeting can vary considerably depending on the size and type of project.
a.
True
b.
False
11.Joseph Juran provided guidance regarding how to
conduct quality planning, quality control, and quality improvement. Which of
the following items is NOT part of Juran's Quality Trilogy?
a. determine what to control, establish
measurement systems, establish standards and compare performance to
standards.
b.
work to identify root causes, not just symptoms
c. select and support improvement projects,
select and implement solutions, and maintain control of improved
processes.
d. identify all customers and their needs,
develop requirements, and develop methods to satisfy those requirements.
12.All of the following items are among the key
areas covered by the Malcolm Baldrige National Quality Award EXCEPT:
a. Strategic planning
b. Team Learning
c. Leadership
d. Customer focus
13.
13.DMAIC
is a disciplined process that includes five phases: Define, Measure, Analyze,
Improve and Control. DMAIC is most typically associated with which of the
following quality improvement approaches?
a. Total Quality Management (TQM)
b. Malcolm Baldrige
c. ISO 9001:2008
d. Six Sigma
14.The four contemporary core project quality concepts that evolved
from the quality gurus and frameworks include which of the following?
a. assumption-based management
b. benchmarking
c. stakeholder satisfaction
d. earned value management
15.The decision process for developing
relevant quality standards on a project includes all of the following
activities EXCEPT:
a. make tradeoff decisions
b. design work systems
c. understand the prioritized stakeholders'
requirements
d. identify all stakeholders
16.Normal or random variations that
are considered part of operating the system at its current capability are
______:
a. common cause variations.
b. special cause variations.
c. life cycle variations
d. systemic variations.
17.All of
the following statements accurately describe special cause variation EXCEPT:
a. It is a statistically unlikely event.
b. It is identified by points outside the
control limits or by unusual patterns within the limits.
c. It
is inherent in the system and is predictable.
d. It requires specific interventions that include finding the root causes and making changes.
18.Which of the following
documents describes how the project team will implement the performing
organization's quality policy?
a.
quality management plan
b. quality benchmarking plan
c. quality audit plan
d. quality control plan
19. After completing detailed
planning for a project, it is often helpful for the project manager
and team to apply a sanity test to the project plan. Which of the
following accurately describes the application of a sanity test?
a. It is based largely on
the expectations of supervisors and sponsors.
b. It should include
questions to ensure budgets, schedules and resource plans are
reasonable and achievable.
c. It is primarily
focused on the team members.
d. It focuses on whether
the project charter should be changed
20. Which of the following
serves as a pre-condition that must be met in order for a project
kick-off meeting to be successful?
a. Compensation
packages and benefits plans should be shared with all team
members.
b. Project
performance results should be calculated and made available
to team members.
c. An atmosphere
of trust and relationship building should be set by all.
Carlos has just created a new subnet for the finance department. He needs to be able to allow the employees in finance to retrieve files from the sales server, which is located in another subnet. Which of the following OSI model layers would it be necessary to categorize the device into? a. Layer 4 b. Layer 6 c. Layer 2 d. Layer 3 All of the cubicles in a company's office have cables that run up to the ceiling and across to an IDF. Inside the IDF, they connect directly to the latest generation switch available from the networking equipment vendor that they have chosen. Which of the following describes the physical topology most likely in use? a. mesh
Some of the advantages of using time boxes and cycles in project coordination efforts include creating urgency, measuring progress, and allowing for predictable measurements. A) True 2. Even though most project managers are not contract specialists, they need to understand the process well enough to coordinate with the team. For the current assignment, you are looking at a short-term and small effort with a contractor of just a few hours without significant clarity. Which of the following would be the most applicable contract to use in this situation? A) Time and materials 3. The project you are working on has had modifications to the plan from the start and even how the project is run. Project governance covers all of the 3 following except: A) Naming The project manager 4. Of the following, which is most likely a trigger condition defined early in the project? A) Alerting Governance board if 10 percent over schedule 5. Of the following options, which stand
A process or product that is insensitive to normal variation is referred to as being Select one: a. in specification b. capable c. robust d. out of control Feedback Your answer is correct. A completed failure mode and effects analysis (FMEA) results in the following assessment rating. Occurrence = 4 Severity = 8 Detection = 10 What is the risk priority number (RPN) for this FMEA? Select one: a. 42 b. 22 c. 320 d. 120 Feedback Your answer is correct. In a visual inspection situation, one of the best ways to minimize deterioration of the quality level is to: Select one: a. have a program of frequent eye exams. b. retrain the inspector frequently. c. add variety to the task. d. have a standard to compare against as an element of the operation. Feedback Your answer is correct. Which of the following elements is least necessary to a good corrective action feedback report? Select one: a. What caused the failure b. Who caused the failure c. What correction has been made d. Wh
Comments
Post a Comment