QUIZ 4
1.
What is the bit size of SOF?
A.
One octet
2.
What is the maximum transmission distance of 1000BaseT?
A.
100 meters (328 feet)
3.
What is the maximum transmission distance of 10GBaseLR?
A.
6 miles
4.
Which device cannot be used with full-duplex communication?
A.
hub
5.
What is the size of a MAC address?
A.
48 bits
6.
What is the decimal value for the binary number 11101000?
A.
232
7.
Which IEEE standard is used for Ethernet over power lines?
A.
1901
8.
If you are using a cable medium
called 10Base2, what does this mean?
A. You are using 10 Mbps of baseband technology
9.
What is the maximum transmission distance of 10GBaseSR?
A.
302 meters (990 feet)
10.
Which of these is a standard
created by the IEEE 802.3bq committee
A.
40GBaseT
11.
Which of these refers to a
particular network scenario wherein one device sends a packet out on a network
segment.
A.
Collision domain
12.
How many devices in a collision
domain have to listen when a single host talks
A.
All (one, two, three)
13.
Which of these is a media access
control connection method that helps devices share the bandwidth evenly without
having two devices transmit at the same time on the network medium.
A.
CSMA/CD
14.
Which of these is a mode 10GBaseE
supporting a link length of up to 40 km on SMF that is based on G.652 using the
optical wavelength of 1,550nm
A.
10GBaseEW
15.
How many wire pairs are used with 100BaseTX full-duplex?
A.
Two
16.
If
a binary value is 1111, then what will be its hexadecimal value
A.
F
17.
Which of the following standards
uses EIA/TIA category 5, category 5e, or category 6 and UTP two-pair wiring
A.
100BaseTX
18.
What is the effective total
throughput increase with a full-duplex connection?
A.
Two times better than before
19.
What does the base mean in 100BaseTX?
A.
Baseband
20.
What is the hexadecimal value of number 10?
A.
A
QUIZ 5
1.
What advantage does a switch have over a hub?
A. It recognizes frame boundaries and pays attention to the destination
MAC addresses of the incoming frames.
2.
What is the use of the web proxy server?
A.
To create a web cache
3.
Which of these is a network device that is used to connect multiple devices
together without segmenting a network?
Hub
4.
What is the primary function of a bridge?
A.
To keep the traffic
separated on both sides of it, breaking up collision domains
5.
At which layer of the OSI model does a proxy server operate?
A.
Application
6.
Which of the following statements is true regarding encryption and content
filtering appliances?
A.
While an encryption
appliance is dedicated to encryption, a content filtering appliance scans the
content of what goes through it and filters out specific content or content
types.
7.
Which of the following devices can work at both layer 2 and layer 3 of the OSI
model?
A.
Multilayer switch
8.
Switches are layer 2 devices. What does it mean?
A.
They segment the network
with MAC addresses.
9.
The users on your network are saturating your bandwidth because they are using
too many non-work-related sites. What device would limit the availability of
the types of sites that the users on a LAN have access to while providing
granular control over the traffic between the local LAN and the Internet?
A. Proxy server
10.
Which device should be used if the users
need to send incoming packets to one or more machines that are hidden behind a
single IP address?
A.
Load balancer
11.
Which of these is the cause of LAN traffic congestion?
A.
Broadcast storm
12.
What role does the A record in a DNS server play in the network?
A.
It translates the human
name to the IP address.
13.
Which device does not aid in network segmentation?
A.
Hub
14.
What happens if a switch determines that a frame's final destination happens to
be on a segment that's connected via a different port than the one on which the
frame was received?
A.
The switch will only
forward the frame out from the specific port on which its destination is
located.
15.
Which of the following is not a requirement for a SOHO Internet connection?
A.
IDS/IPS
16.
What happens if the DHCP server isn't on the same segment as the DHCP client?
A.
The broadcast won't be
received by the server because, by default, routers won't forward them.
17. What is the benefit of MLS over a layer 2
switch?
A.
It provides routing.
18.
Which device makes each of its ports a unique, singular collision domain?
A.
Switch
19.
What is an advantage of the DHCP server in a network environment?
A.
It assigns IP addresses to
hosts.
20.
Which of these is the process of finding the IP address for any given hostname?
A.
Name resolution
QUIZ 6
1. Which
of the following statements is true about the DHCP Discover message?
A.
1. It uses UDP as the transport
layer protocol.
2. It uses
FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF as a layer 2 broadcast.
2. Which
protocol is used to find the hardware address of a host from a known IP
address?
A. ARP
3. You
need to have secure communications using HTTPS. What port number is used by
default?
A. 443
4. Which
of the following statements is true about a baseline?
A. It is a report delimiting the
operational traits of a healthy network.
5. Which
of the following statements is true about PDU?
A. It holds the control information
attached to the data at each layer of the OSI model.
6. You
need to have a connection to run applications that are installed only on your
desktop computer at your office. Which protocol will provide a GUI interface to
your work computer?
A. RDP
7. Which
of the following statements are true regarding the ICMP packets?
A.
1. They can provide hosts with
information about network problems.
2. They are encapsulated within
IP datagrams.
8. Which
of these uses a spooled or queued method of mail delivery?
A. SMTP
9. You
want to implement a mechanism that automates the IP configuration, including IP
address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS information. Which protocol will
help you in the given scenario?
A. DHCP
10.
Which of the following protocols gives the users a storage facility for
incoming mail?
A. POP
11.
Which of these sets up a secure Telnet session over a standard TCP/IP
connection?
A. SSH
12.
Which of the following protocols has no directory-browsing abilities and can do
nothing but send and receive files?
A. TFTP
13.
You need to transfer files between two hosts. Which protocol can you use?
A. FTP
14.
Which of the following protocols is used by email servers to exchange messages
with one another?
A. SMTP
15.
Which of the following protocols takes large blocks of information from an
application and breaks them into segments?
A. TCP
16.
Which of these is a tunneling protocol that can encapsulate many protocols inside
IP tunnels?
A. GRE
17.
What is the default port number of Telnet?
A. TCP 23
18.
What is the main purpose of the host-to-host layer?
A. To shield the upper-layer applications from the complexities of the network
19.
Which of the following protocols is used to access and query directory services
systems, such as Microsoft Active Directory?
A. LDAP
20.
Which of the following port numbers is related to DNS?
A.
53
QUIZ 7
1. Which
of the following statements are true about IPv4 and IPv6 addresses?
A.
1. An IPv6 address is 128-bits
long, represented in hexadecimal.
2. An IPv4 address is
32-bits long, represented in decimal.
2. Which
of these is a valid Class B address?
A. 129.1.1.1
3. What
is the IP range of APIPA?
A. 169.254.0.1 through
169.254.255.254
4. Which
of these is a valid Class A address?
A. 126.10.0.1
5. Which
of the following statements is true about the anycast address?
A. It identifies multiple
interfaces, and the packet is delivered to only one address.
6. What
is the function of the network 127.0.0.1?
A. It is reserved for loopback
tests.
7. How
long is the Class C network address?
A. 24-bits
8. What
is the size of an IPv6 address?
A. 128-bits
9. Which
of these is used by Cisco routers to designate the default route?
A. Entire IP address set to all 0s
10.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the Class C network?
A. It
is reserved for numerous networks with a small number of hosts.
11.
IPv6 unicast routing is running on the Corp router. Based on the given
information, which of the following addresses would be used as the EUI-64
address?
A. fe80::3c3d:2d:bdff:fe3b:0d80
12.
Which of the following statements is true about the host address of all 0s?
A. It is interpreted to mean the
network address or any host on the specified network.
13.
Which of these is a valid Class C address?
A. 192.255.254.0
14.
Which of the following describes a broadcast address?
A. All host bits are on (1s).
15.
Which of the following addresses is not allowed on the Internet?
A. 172.31.12.251
16.
Which of the following statements is true about the private IP addresses?
A. They can be used on a private
network, but they're not routable through the Internet.
17.
Which of the following statements is true about the multicast address?
A. The packets addressed to a multicast
address are delivered to all interfaces identified by the multicast address.
18.
Which of the following statements is true about the unicast address?
A. It includes the packets that are
delivered to a single interface.
19.
Which of the following statements is true about the layer 2 broadcasts in IPv4?
A. They are sent to all nodes on a
LAN.
20.
Which of these is a layer 2 broadcast?
A. FF.FF.FF.FF.FF.FF
QUIZ 8,9,10
1. What is the block size of the CIDR subnet mask
/28?
A. 16
2. If an Ethernet port on a router was assigned
an IP address 172.16.112.1/25, what would be the subnet address of
this host?
A. 172.16.112.0
3. What is the IP address of the router's
Ethernet0?
A. 192.168.10.33/27
4. Which of the following is a method used
by ISPs to allocate a number of addresses to a company or a home
connection?
A. CIDR
5. Which of the following devices allows the
users to implement NAT?
A. Router
6. If you are forced to replace a router that
has failed to the point that you are unable to access its current configuration
to aid in setting up interface addresses on the new router, which of the
following can you reference for assistance?
A. The default gateway settings on computers from each subnet that the old
router is connected to
7. A network administrator is connecting two
hosts directly through their Ethernet interfaces. However, the
ping attempts between the hosts are unsuccessful. What can be done to
provide connectivity between the hosts?
A. A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through
cable.
The subnet masks should be set
to 255.255.255.0.
8. Which of the following commands displays the
list of routers on a path to a network destination by using TTL time-outs and
ICMP error messages?
A. traceroute
9. You have an interface on a router with the
IP address 192.168.192.10/29. Including the router interface, how many hosts
can have IP addresses on the LAN attached to the router interface?
A. 6
10. Which of these is desirable when
configuring the IP settings on a computer on one subnet to ensure that it can communicate with
a computer on another subnet?
A. Configure the computer with a default gateway that matches the IP
address of the interface of the router, which is attached to the same subnet as
the computer.
11. Your ISP has provided you with one IP
address with a /30 subnet mask. However, you have 300 users that
need to access the Internet. Which technology will you use to implement a
solution?
A. PAT
12. How many masks are there in the CIDR subnet
mask /26?
A. 192
13. Which of the following masks should the
users use on point-to-point WAN links in order to reduce the waste of IP
addresses on a network?
A. /30
14. Which of the following is the initial step
of creating a solid design of subnetwork?
A. Determine the number of required network IDs.
15. What is the block size of the CIDR subnet
mask /30?
A. 4
16. You have a network with
a subnet 172.16.17.0/22. Which of these is a valid host address?
A. 172.16.18.255 with network ID 255.255.252.0
17. What is the highest usable address on the
172.16.1.0/24 network?
A. 172.16.1.254
18. You receive a call from a user who is
complaining that they cannot get on the Internet. You have them verify their IP
address, mask, and default gateway. The IP address is 10.0.37.144, with a
subnet mask of 255.255.254.0. The default gateway is 10.0.38.1. What is the
problem?
A. Incorrect gateway IP
19. What is the maximum number of IP addresses
that can be assigned to hosts on a local subnet, which uses the 255.255.255.224
subnet mask?
A. 30
20. You have an interface on a router with the
IP address 192.168.192.10/29. What is the broadcast address that the hosts will
use on this network?
A. 192.168.192.15
21. Which of the following statements is true
about an autonomous system?
A. It is a collection of networks or subnets that are in the same
administrative domains.
22. Which command would be used to view the ARP
cache on the host?
A. arp –a
23. Which of these are the link-state
protocols?
Each correct answer represents a complete
solution. Choose all that apply.
A. OSPF
IS-IS
24. Where does the frame have to carry a packet
if it is destined for a remote network?
A. Default gateway
25. Which of these are the categories of IGP
protocols?
A. Link-state
Distance-vector
26. When the routing tables of all routers in
the network are complete because they include information about all the
networks in the internetwork, they are considered __________.
A. converged
27. Which of the following is not a
distance-vector protocol?
A. OSPF
28. What happens when a router receives a
packet for a network that isn't listed in the routing table?
A. It will discard the packet.
29. When are you most likely
to see a 'Request Timed Out' message?
A. When an unknown error has occurred
30. Which of the following statements is true
about MAC addresses?
A. They are always local on the LAN and never go through and past a
router.
31. Where along the IP routing process does a
packet get arranged?
A. Destination device
32. Which of these is a hybrid routing
protocol?
A. EIGRP
33. What type of request must a client send if
it does not know the destination MAC address?
A. ARP broadcast
34. Which of the following EGP protocols is
used on the Internet?
A. BGP
35. Which of the following statements is true
about dynamic routing?
A. A protocol on one router communicates with the same protocol running on
the neighboring routers.
36. What does C mean in the routing table
output?
A. The networks listed are directly connected, and until the routing
protocol is added to the routers in the internetwork, the users will
have only directly connected networks in the routing table.
37. Which of these is the time required by the
routing protocols to update the routing tables (forwarding tables) on all
routers in the network?
A. Routing convergence
38. What does the acronym EIGRP stand for?
A. Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol
39. What pieces of information does a router
require to make a routing decision?
A.1 Neighbor routers
2 Destination network address
40. Which of these is not a
routing protocol?
A. RIPv3
41. Which of the following statements is true
about EIGRP?
A. It uses the concept of an autonomous system to describe the set of
contiguous routers that run the same routing protocol and share routing
information.
42. Which of the following protocols is Cisco's
favorite FHRP protocol?
A. HSRP
43. Which routing protocols have an
administrative distance of 120?
A. 1. RIPv1
2. RIPv2
44. Which of these contains all destinations
advertised by neighboring routers, holding each destination address and a list
of neighbors that have advertised the destination?
A. Topology table
45. What is the other name for route
aggregation?
A. Supernetting
46. Which of the following statements describes
routing convergence time?
A. The time required by protocols to update their forwarding tables after
changes have occurred
47. Which of the following statements is true
regarding the successor route?
A. It is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination and is stored
in the routing table.
48. Which routing protocol uses multicast
224.0.0.9?
A. RIPv2
49. Which of the following routing protocols is
essentially an alternative to using default routes for controlling path
selections?
A. BGP
50. Which of the following statements is true
about the administrative distance?
A. It is used to rate the trustworthiness of routing information received
on one router from its neighboring router.
51. What is the administrative distance of
OSPF?
A. 110
52. In how much time gap does RIP send the
complete routing table out to all active interfaces?
A. 30 seconds
53. What is the multicast address of EIGRPv6 in
IPv4?
A. 224.0.0.10
54. RIP has a long
convergence time and users have been complaining of response time when a router
goes down and RIP has to reconverge. Which of the following solutions can the
users implement to improve the convergence time on the network?
A. Update RIP to OSPF using
link-state routing.
55. Which routing
protocol is used to connect ASs on the Internet?
A. BGP
56. Which of the
following statements is true about a hybrid protocol?
A. BGP is listed as a hybrid
routing protocol because of its capability to work as an EGP and can be used in
supersized internetworks internally.
57. Which of the
following protocols support VLSM, summarization, and discontiguous networking?
A. 1 OSPF
2 EIGRP
3 RIPv2
58. In a
distance-vector protocol, the vector indicates the direction of the remote
network.
A. True
59. Which of the
following protocols has a max hop count of 15 and uses UDP port 521?
A. RIPng
60. Which of these
are considered link-state routing protocols?
A. 1 IS-IS
2 OSPF
QUIZ 14
1. Which
of these should not be updated to reflect the changed state of the
network?
A. Notification
to change
2. Which of these represents the amount of time a
system will be down or unavailable during the implementation of changes?
A. Maintenance
window
3. Which of these is a plan for reversing changes
and recovering from any adverse effects from the changes?
A. Rollback
4. Which of these indicates the way of properly
installing or removing software on the servers?
A. Procedure
5. You have made the release of product plans
available only to the Sales group members. Which tool can prevent the emailing
of a document to anyone other than Sales group members?
A. DLP
6. To what type of devices are the BYOD policies
applied?
A. Mobile
7. Which policy shows the time before a password
can be reused?
A. Password
history
8. Which of the following is not a device hardening
technique?
A. Deploy
an access control vestibule.
9. A network baseline delimits when bandwidth is
available and the amount of that bandwidth.
A. True
10. Which of these connects equipment (inside
plant) to cables and subscriber carrier equipment (outside plant)?
A. MDF
Quiz-15
1. Which of these provides a method to join multiple physical
switches into a single logical switching unit?
A. Switch stacking
2. Which of
the following protocols gives the users a way to configure more than one
physical router to appear as if they were only a single logical one?
A. FHRP
3. Which of the following fire suppression systems is not a good choice for locating computing equipment?
A. Deluge
4. Which site
is a leased facility that contains all the resources needed for full operation?
A. Hot
5. Which of
the following statements is true about the HSRP group?
A. It has only one active router, at least one standby
router, and many listening routers.
6. What is the
HSRP group number of the group with the HSRP MAC address as 0000.0c07.ac0a?
A. 10
7. Which of
the following timers have the default interval of 3 seconds and identifies the
state that each router is in?
A. Hello
8. Which of
these is an IEEE standard (RFC 2338) for router redundancy?
A. VRRP
9. Which of
these is a measure back in time when the data was preserved in a usable format,
most often to the recent backup?
A. RPO
10. Which of
the following backup types does not include the data?
A. System state
Quiz-16
1. Which of the following concerns should the
users have when they encrypt data before sending it?
A. Confidentiality
2. Which of these is not an external threat?
A. Accidental
file deletion by an ex-employee
3. Which of these is maintained by the MITRE
Corporation and includes entries that describe a vulnerability in detail, using
a number and letter system?
A. CVE
4. Which of these is an attack where no known fix
exists?
A. Zero-day
5. Which of these occurs when a threat agent takes
advantage of weakness and uses it to advance an attack?
A. Exploit
6. Which principle specifies that the users should
be given access only to resources required to do their job?
A. Least
privilege
7. Which of the following access methods allows
the new employees to be simply placed in the group and inherit all the required
permissions?
A. Role-based
8. You have decided that the default permission
for all files will be 'No Access'. What principle are you following?
A. Zero
Trust
9. Which of these is a method of checking the
security health of network hosts before they're allowed to access the network?
A. NAC
10. Which of these are you following when you are
encrypting a file, applying access permissions to it, and locking the door to
the room where the server on which the file resides is located?
A. Defense-in-depth
QUIZ-17
1. Which of these is an
AP that is not under the user's control but is used to perform a
hijacking attack?
A. Evil
twin
2. Which of these is connected to the users' wired
infrastructure without their knowledge?
A. Rogue AP
3. Which of these is the process of adopting
another system's MAC address for the purpose of receiving the data meant for
that system?
A. ARP
spoofing
4. Which of the following types of attacks
includes double tagging?
A. VLAN
hopping
5. Which of these was previously known as the
man-in-the-middle attack?
A. On-path
6. In which of these do the attacker and his bots
send a small spoofed 8-byte UDP packet to the vulnerable NTP servers that
request a large amount of data to be sent to the DDoS's target IP address?
A. NTP
7. Which of these is an attack that inundates the
receiving machine with lots of packets that cause the victim to waste resources
by holding connections open?
A. SYN
flood
8. Which of these is a
version of the DoS attack that floods its victim with spoofed broadcast ping
messages?
A. Smurf
9. Which of the following attacks includes the
command and control server?
A. DDoS
10. Which of the following is not a technology-based
attack?
A. Shoulder
surfing
QUIZ-18
1. Where should the users always start their
search for driver updates?
A. Website
of the manufacturer
2. Which of the following conditions should be
included when configuring ACLs between the Internet and the private network to
mitigate security problems?
A. Deny
any addresses from the internal networks.
3. In which of the following systems are users
organized by job into security groups, which are then granted the rights and
permissions required to perform that job?
A. RBAC
4. Which of these is also called whitelisting?
A. Implicit
deny
5. Which of the following statements is true about
the explicit deny approach?
A. All
traffic is allowed unless it is especially denied with a rule
6. Which of these can be used with a wireless
sniffer?
A. MAC
address filter
7. Which of these creates two WLANs in one?
A. Guest
network isolation
8. Which of these defines the area in which an
operation can be performed by using a GPS?
A. Geofencing
9. Which of these is a web page to which the users
are directed when they attempt to connect to the WLAN?
A. Captive
portal
10. Which of these is a role that an IoT device can
play in a botnet?
A. Zombie
QUIZ-19
1. Which of the following types of VPN includes a split tunnel and a full tunnel?
A. Client-to-site
2. Which of these is not an example of a
remote desktop connection?
A. SSH
3. Which of
these operates similar to Telnet, except instead of getting a command-line
prompt as the users do with Telnet, they get the actual GUI of the remote
computer?
A. RDP
4. Which of these was formerly called Terminal
Services Client?
A. Remote
Desktop Connection
5. Which of these allows the users to tunnel
directly to the remote server with no VPN?
A. RDP
Gateway
6. Which of these is a network protocol that is
designed as an alternative to command-based utilities, such as Telnet?
A. SSH
7. Which of the following is not a component of VNC?
A. VNC
desktop
8. Which of these is an operating system image
delivered over the network at each startup?
A. Virtual desktop
9. Which of the following is provisioned for the
most effective way to control both authentication of remote users and the
application of their permissions?
A. AAA
10. Which of the following technologies includes
Integrated Lights-Out?
A. Out-of-band
management
QUIZ-20
1. Which of these includes an open case warning?
A. Tamper
detection
2. Which motion detection system operates by
emitting a magnetic field and monitoring that field?
A. Capacitance
3. Which motion detection system operates by
identifying changes in heat waves in an area?
A. Infrared
4. Which of these is managed using a simple
desktop or mobile software?
A. Smart
locker
5. Which of these was previously known as mantrap?
A. Access
control vestibule
6. Which of these occurs when a legitimate user is
denied authentication in a biometric system?
A. False
negative
7. Which of these are not examples of
multifactor authentication?
A. USB fob
and smart card
8. Which of these comprises a category of devices
that are used to identify and authenticate users?
A. Access
control hardware
9. Which of these is designed to operate using
characteristic and behavioral factors?
A. Biometric
system
10. Which of the following would not be considered a detection method?
A. Employee
training
1)At which layer do the
servers connect on a three-tiered network?
A) Access
2) Which of these is used to
describe network traffic flow that either enters or leaves the data center
from/to a system physically residing outside the data center?
A) North-South
3) Which of these allows for
applications to control and configure the network without human intervention?
A) API
4) Where does the SDN controller interface reside in the
control plane with the switching fabric?
A) Control
plane
5) Which of these is a
process-related standard that outlines best practices for IT asset management
in an organization?
A) 19770-1
6) You have upgraded the firmware
on your switches and access points. Which documentation do you need to update?
A) Physical
network diagram
7) UTP cable has specific colors
for the wire associated with each pin. Based on the TIA/EIA 568B wiring
standard, what is the correct color order, starting with pin 1?
A) White/orange,
orange, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, white/brown, brown
8) Which pins are switched in a crossover
cable?
A) 1 and
3, 2 and 6
9) Which of these governs how a
network is configured and operated as well as how people are expected to behave
on a network?
A) Policies
10) Which virtualization approach runs within a
conventional operating system environment?
A) Type 2
hypervisor
11) Which of these describes
numerous technologies that are able to deliver voice communications over the
Internet or other data networks?
A) VoIP
12) Which of these are the reasons to optimize network performance?
A) Minimizing
latency
Using VoIP
Using video applications
13) Which of these methods are used to connect a
private cloud to a public cloud?
A) Internet
VPN
Direct Connect
14) Public clouds are divided into
logical groupings that allow many different customers to access a section as if
it were their own private data center. This process is known as
___________________.
A) multitenancy
15) When the vendor provides the
hardware platform or data center, and the company installs and manages its own
operating systems and application systems, which service type is being used?
A) Infrastructure
as a Service
16) After a network configuration
change has been made, which of these is not a document that needs to be
updated?
A) Application
document
17) While unexpected adverse effects
of a change can't always be anticipated, a good-faith effort should be made to identify
all possible systems that could be impacted by the change.
A) True
18) Abstracting the cloud hardware
into software objects for automated configuration is referred to as
___________________.
A) Infrastructure
as Code
19) Which of these is included in
the rack security?
A) Swing
handle with a number and a key lock
20) Which of the following
components of virtual networking can perform all the same functions as physical
servers?
A) Virtual
server
QUIZ 22
1) Which
device components should not be allowed to reach full capacity?
A) Memory
CPU
2) Which of the following
statements is true about latency?
A) More
the latency, longer the delay, and longer the users have to stare
blankly back at their computer screen, hoping something happens soon
3) What is the variation in delay
called?
A) Jitter
4) Which SNMP version added support for the GET BULK operations?
A) SNMPv2c
5) Which of these supports strong
authentication with MD5 or SHA, providing confidentiality and data integrity of
messages via DES or DES-256 encryption between agents and managers?
A) SNMPv3
6) Which of the following versions
of SNMP supports plaintext authentication with community strings and uses only
UDP?
A) SNMPv1
7) Which networking protocol uses
OIDs and MIBs for data collection and organization of data?
A) SNMP
8) Which of these is a text string
containing detailed information about the event being reported?
A) Description
9) Which protocol allows the users to display, sort,
and even search messages, all of which makes it a great troubleshooting tool?
A) Syslog
10) Which of the following Syslog
severity level denotes that the system is unusable?
A) Emergency
11) Which of these represents the bi-directional
traffic flow across an Ethernet interface?
A) Full-duplex
12) Which of these mathematically
determines network errors?
A) CRC
13) Which environmental variables are critical factors
in the health of computing equipment?
A) Temperature
Humidity
14) Which of these occurs when a
segment of data fails the addition or deletion of header information?
A) Encapsulation
error
15) What can be the smallest size of
an Ethernet frame?
A) 64
bytes
16) A specific server's baseline describes norms for
factors, such as how busy its processors are and how much of the memory it
uses.
A) True
17) Which of these can refer to the
standard level of performance of a certain device or to the normal operating
capacity for the whole network?
A) Baseline
18) Which of these can collect more
granular information on traffic flows than SNMP is able to?
A) NetFlow
19) Which of these is a
system-design protocol that guarantees a certain amount of operational uptime
during a given period?
A) High
availability
20) Which of these are the metrics that are tracked to
account for utilization in operations?
A) Uptime
Downtime
QUIZ 23
1) You install
new switches in your server room and are now experiencing network instability
and other issues across all servers in the rack. Which device would be used to
alert you of system overheating?
A) Voltage
event recorder
2) Which of the following tools can
test a port on a device?
A) Loopback
plug
3) Which device monitors incoming voltage
levels and overvoltage thresholds?
A) Surge
protector
4) On which of these would a
technician use a punch-down tool?
A) 110
blocks
5) Which tool is used to attach an
RJ-45 connector to Cat 5e, 6, 7, or 8 cables?
A) Crimper
6) Which tool pushes a conductor
between the sides of a V inside an IDC?
A) Punch-down
tool
7) Which device will be used to
locate a specific connection in an unlabeled punch-down block?
A) Toner
probe
8) Which device would be used to
measure voltage?
A) Multimeter
9) Which of these is not a
function of a TDR?
A) Display
unused services.
10) Which software tool looks at all traffic on a network
segment?
A) Packet
sniffer
11) Which device should be used if
you need to determine whether your network meets ISO or TIA standards?
A) Certifiers
12) Which of these can check the
speed and condition of the signal on a cable, measure the time it takes to send
a signal down the wire and back, and find the exact location of a break?
A) TDR
13) What is the purpose of wire-map
testers?
A) To
detect transposed wires, opens, and shorts in twisted-pair cables
14) Which of the following
statements is true about a butt set?
A) It
is essentially a portable telephone that allows the users to
test analog wet or dry lines and is used to monitor those lines.
15) End-to-end loss across an
Ethernet cable is called _______.
A) attenuation
16) You need to create a cable that
will connect your host to a wall jack connection. Which of the following tools
will you use?
A) Snips
17) Which tool would the users use
to both find a break in a fiber-optic connection and test the fiber
connectivity on the network?
A) OTDR
18) Which tool will the users use to
trace cables in multiple-pair wiring?
A) Toner
probe
19) Which of the following
statements is true about a wire-map tester?
A) It is a
device that transmits signals through each wire in a copper twisted-pair cable
to determine if it's connected to the correct pin at the other end.
20) Which of these is a wiring error
where two connections that are supposed to be connected using the two wires of
a twisted-pair cable are instead connected using two wires from different
pairs?
A) Split
pair
WEKK-1 QUIZS
1. When is a
point - to - multipoint network applicable ?
A. When a centralized office needs
to communicate with many branch offices
2. Which of
these is a relaxation when using peer - to - peer networks ?
A. The security associated with
such a network
3. Which of the
following statements is true about the ring topology ?
A. It has a lot in common with the
bus topology because if the users + want to add a system to the network , they
have no choice but to break the cable ring , which is likely to bring down the
entire network .
4. Which of
these is an example of LAN ?
A. A computer connected to another computer so that they can share
resources
5. When
designing a network and deciding which type of network topology to use , which
of the following items should be considered ? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution . Choose all that apply .
A.
1 .Fault - tolerance requirement.
2. Ease of maintenance.
3. Ease of installation.
6. What is a
logical grouping of network users and resources called ?
A. LAN
7. Which of the
following topologies has point - to - point connections to every device ?
A. Mesh
8. Which of the
following statements is true about the star topology ?
A. When the central concentrating
device experiences a complete failure , all attached devices lose connectivity
to the rest of the network .
9. Which of the
following topologies is a combination of two or more types of physical or
logical network topologies working together within the same network ?
A. Hybrid
10. Which of
these provides the most physical layout flexibility in a very large and
geographically dispersed enterprise network ?
A. MPLS
11. Which of
the following statements are true about WANS ? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution . Choose all that apply .
A.
1. They can utilize either private
or public data transport media , such as phone lines .
2. They need a router port or ports
.
3. They span larger geographic
areas and / or can link disparate locations .
12. what type
of network are all computers considered equal and do not share any central
authority ?
A. Peer - to – peer
13. Which type
of topology gives the users a direct connection between two routers so that
there is only one communication path ?
A. Point - to – point
14. You need a
network that provides centralized authentication for your users . Which of the
following logical topologies should you use ?
A. Client – server
15. Which type
of topology has the greatest number of physical connections ?
A. Mesh
16. In a
physical star topology , what happens when a workstation loses its physical
connection to another device ?
A. Only that particular workstation
loses its ability to communicate .
17. You have a
network with multiple LANS and want to keep them separate but still connect
them together so that they all can get to the Internet . Which of these is the
best solution that should be implemented in the given scenario ?
A. Install a router .
18. Which type
of technology uses labels , which enables the priority of voice data through
the network ?
A. MPLS
19. Which of
the following topologies is scalable to use in the network ?
A. Star
20. What
advantages do the client - server architecture have over the peer - to - peer
architecture ? Each correct answer represents a complete solution . Choose all
that apply .
A.
1 Greater organization
2. Tighter security
3. Easier maintenance
21. Which IEEE
standard specifies the media-access method used by Ethernet, which is known as
CSMA/CD ?
A. 802.3
22. Which of
these can the users use to remember the first letter of the name of each layer
of the OSI model in the proper order ?
A. Please Do Not Throw Sausage
Pizza Away
23. Which of
the following layers of the OSI model includes routers that perform the routing
services within an internetwork ?
A. Network
24. Which of
the following layers of the OSI model can be used to keep an application's data
separate from other application's data ?
A. Session
25. At which
layer of the OSI model would the users find the IP address ?
A. Network
26. What is the
purpose of flow control ?
A. To provide a means for the
receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender
27. Which of
the following statements is true regarding sequencing and acknowledgements?
Each correct answer represents a complete
solution. Choose all that apply.
A.
1. The segments delivered are
acknowledged back to the sender upon their reception
2. Any segments not acknowledged
are retransmitted
3. Segments are sequenced back into
their proper order upon arrival at their destination
28. Which of
the following layers of the OSI model includes acknowledgements, sequencing,
and flow control ?
A. 4
29. Which of
these do the routers break up?
A. Broadcast domains
30. At which
layer of the OSI model does the segmentation of a data stream happen ?
A. Transport
31. Which layer
of the OSI model provides dialog control between devices or nodes?
A. Session
32. A receiving
host has failed to receive all the segments that it should acknowledge. What
can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session ?
A. Decrease the window size
33. Which layer
of the OSI model is responsible for converting the data into the signals that
are appropriate for the transmission medium ?
A. Physical
34. Which layer
of the OSI model formats the message into pieces and adds a customized header
containing the destination and source hardware addresses ?
A. Data link
35. Which layer
of the OSI model is responsible for data translation and code formatting ?
A. Presentation
36. You are
connected to a server on the Internet. You have clicked a link on the server
and have received a time-out message. What layer could be the source of this
time-out message ?
A. Application
37. Which layer
of the OSI model chooses and determines the availability of communicating
partners along with the resources necessary to make their required connections
?
A. Application
38. At which
layer of the OSI model do TCP and UDP reside ?
A. 4
39. In a
connection-oriented session, if host 1 sent the SYN packet to host 2, what will
host 2 send in response ?
A. SYN/ACK
40. Which is
the correct order of data encapsulation ?
A. Data, segment, packet, frame,
bits
41. How many
wires are used in a 100BaseTX UTP transmission?
A. Four
42. Which of
the following statements is true about fiber-optic cable?
A .It can transmit up to 40
kilometers
43. Which of
the following UTP cable categories is used for 100BaseTX (two pair wiring) and
is rated for 100 MHz bandwidth?
A. Category 5
44. Which of
these are the fiber optic-connectors?
Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A.
1. ST
2. SC
3. LC
45. For which
of the following distances is RJ-45 mainly used in LAN?
A. 100 meters
46. What is the
main difference between SMF and MMF?
A. Number of light rays
47. Which type
of cable transmits the light source from one end to another?
A. SMF (single-mode fiber)
48. Why is
fiber-optic cable immune to EMI and RFI?
A. Because it transmits digital
signals using light impulses
49. Which of
these provides the longest cable run distance?
A. Single-mode fiber
50. What type
of connector does UTP cable use?
A. RJ-45
52. In which of
the following categories is UTP cable not related?
A. Category 9
51. Which of
the following statements is true about the non-plenum cable?
A. It's insulation gives off
poisonous smoke that gets circulated throughout the whole building
52. How many
hosts can talk at one time on a full-duplex segment?
A. Two
53. How many
hosts can talk at a time on a half-duplex segment?
A. One
54. How many
wires does VoIP use?
A. Eight
55. Which of
the following statements is true regarding the wiring of a T1 crossover cable?
A. Pins 1, 2, 4, and 5 are
connected to pins 4, 5, 1, and 2, respectively
56. Which of
these is not connected via a crossover cable?
A. Host to switch
57. Which of
the following types of cables is used to connect a host to a switch or a hub or
a router to a switch or a hub?
A. Straight-through
58. What is the
purpose of the demarcation point?
A. To separate the customer from
the service provider
60. In which of
the following twisted-pair Ethernet is UTP commonly used?
Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A .
1. 10BaseT
2. 100BaseTX
3. 1000BaseTX
1. A user
calls you complaining that he can't access the corporate intranet web server.
You try the same address, and you receive a 'Host Not Found' error. Several
minutes later, another user reports the same problem. You can still send emails
and transfer files to another server. What is the most likely
cause of the problem mentioned in the given scenario?
A. The webserver is down.
2. You have
gathered information on a network issue and determined the affected areas of
the network. What should be your next step to resolve this issue?
A. You should check if there have
been any recent changes to this affected part of the network.
3.
When wireless users complain that they are losing their connection to the
applications during a session, what is the source of the problem?
A. Latency
4.
Which of these is not a basic physical issue that can
occur on a network when a user is connected via cable?
A. DNS configuration
5.
Several users can't log in to the server. Which action would help you to
narrow the problem down to the workstations, network, or server?
A. Check the server console for
user connections.
6. You have
a user who cannot connect to the network. What is the first thing you could
check to determine the source of the problem?
A. Connectivity
7. You
receive a call from a user who is having issues connecting to a new VPN. Which
is the first step that you should take?
A. Identify the symptoms and
potential causes.
8. You have
implemented and tested a solution and identified any other effects that the
solution may have. What is your next step?
A. Document the solution.
9.
Which of these steps are not part of the Network+
troubleshooting model?
A. Reboot all the routers
Reboot the servers
10. You have just
implemented a solution to the problem and, now, you want to celebrate your
success. Before doing so, what should you do?
A. Test the solution and identify
other effects it may have.
11. When
troubleshooting an obscure network problem, what physical conditions should be
reviewed to make sure that the network device is operating correctly?
A. Excessive heat
Excessive humidity
ESD problems
12. A user
is experiencing problems logging in to a Linux server. He can connect to the
Internet over the local area network. Other users in the same area aren't
experiencing any problems. You attempt logging in as this user from your
workstation with his username and password and don't experience any problems.
However, you cannot log in with either his username or yours from his
workstation. What is the likely cause of the situation explained in the given
scenario?
A. The Caps Lock key is pressed.
13.
You are able to ping the local router and web server that a local user is
trying to reach, but you cannot reach the web page that resides on that server.
From step 2 (establish a theory of the probable cause) of the troubleshooting
model, what is a possible problem that would lead to this situation?
A. There is a problem with your
browser.
14. A
user can't log in to the network. She can't even connect to the Internet over
the local area network. Other users in the same area aren't experiencing any
problems. You attempt to log in as this user from your workstation with
her username and password and don't experience any problems. However,
you cannot log in with either her username or yours from her
workstation. Which of these is the likely cause of the problem mentioned in the
given scenario?
A.
A bad patch cable
15. You are troubleshooting a LAN switch and have identified
the symptoms. What is the next step you should take?
A. Escalate
the issue.
16. A workstation presents an error message to a user.
The message states that a duplicate IP address has been detected on the
network. After establishing a change in the network, what should be the next
step of the standard troubleshooting model?
A. Select
the most probable cause.
17. Users are reporting that they can access the Internet but
not the internal company website. Which of these is the most likely
problem?
A. The
intranet server is down.
18. You lose power to your computer room, and the
switches in your network do not come back up when everything is brought online.
After you have identified the affected areas, established the cause, and
escalated this problem, what should be your next step?
A. Meet
with the emergency response team to determine the next step.
19. A user calls you to report a problem regarding
logging in to the corporate intranet. You can access the website without
problems using the user's username and
password. At your request, the user has tried logging in from other
workstations but has been unsuccessful. What is the most likely
cause of the problem?
A. The
user is logging in incorrectly.
20. Several users have complained about the server's
poor performance. However, you know that the memory installed on the server is
sufficient. What could you use to determine the source of the problem?
A. Performance-monitoring
tools
Quiz: 25.
1. Which ftp navigation tool displays and changes the current
directory on the local machine?
A. lcd
2. Which netstat utility
displays all connections and listening ports on the host computer?
A. –a
3. Which command captures the traffic on all interfaces?
A. tcpdump
-i any
4. Which Windows utility can the users use to connect
to a machine 50 miles away to troubleshoot?
A. Remote
Desktop
5. Which command-line tool can the users use to find
the NIC's specific MAC address and IP address without physically going to the
computer?
A.
arp
6. Which switch displays both workstation and server
sessions but lists remote addresses by IP address only?
A. –S
7. You are a network administrator in a reputed
company. A user calls you complaining that the performance of the intranet web
server is sluggish. When you try to ping the server, it takes several seconds
for the server to respond. You suspect that the problem is related to a router
that is seriously overloaded. Which of the following workstation utilities
could you use to find out which router is causing this problem?
A. tracert
8. Which of these
is not a chain type used by iptables?
A.
Backward
9. Which utility produces output similar to the given
output?
1. 110 ms 96 ms 107 ms fgo1.corpcomm.net [209.74.93.10]
2. 96 ms 126 ms 95 ms someone.corpcomm.net [209.74.93.1]
3. 113 ms 119 ms 112 ms Serial5–1–1.GW2.MSP1.alter.net [157.130.100.185]
4. 133 ms 123 ms 126 ms 152.ATM3–0.XR2.CHI6.ALTER.NET [146.188.209.126]
5. 176 ms 133 ms 129 ms 290.ATM2–0.TR2.CHI4.ALTER.NET [146.188.209.10]
6. 196 ms 184 ms 218 ms 106.ATM7–0.TR2.SCL1.ALTER.NET [146.188.136.162]
7. 182 ms 187 ms 187 ms 298.ATM7–0.XR2.SJC1.ALTER.NET [146.188.146.61]
8. 204 ms 176 ms 186 ms 192.ATM3–0–0.SAN–JOSE9– GW.ALTER.NET [146.188.144.133]
9. 202 ms 198 ms 212 ms atm3–0–622M.cr1.sjc.globalcenter.net [206.57.16.17]
10. 209 ms 202 ms 195 ms pos3–1–155M.br4.SJC.globalcenter.net [206.132.150.98]
11. 190 ms * 191 ms pos0–0–0–155M.hr3.SNV.globalcenter.net [206.251.5.93]
12. 195 ms 188 ms 188 ms pos4–1–0– 155M.hr2.SNV.globalcenter.net [206.132.150.206]
13. 198 ms 202 ms 197 ms www10.yahoo.com [204.71.200.75]
A.
tracert
10.
Which TCP/IP utility
will produce the given output?
Reply from 204.153.163.2: bytes=32 time=1ms TTL=128
Reply from 204.153.163.2: bytes=32 time=1ms TTL=128
Reply from 204.153.163.2: bytes=32 time=1ms TTL=128
Reply from 204.153.163.2: bytes=32 time<10ms TTL=128
A.
ping
11.
Which of the following arp utility switches display the current ARP entries by
interrogating the current protocol data?
A.
–g
–a
12. Which TCP/IP utility will produce the following
result?
Interface: 199.102.30.152
Internet Address Physical Address Type
199.102.30.15 A0–ee–00–5b–0e–ac dynamic
A. arp
13. Wireshark is an example of a(n) __________.
A. protocol
analyzer
14. Which netstat command displays addresses
and port numbers in numerical form?
A. –n
15. Which netstat command displays the owning process
ID associated with each connection?
A. –o
16. Which new Linux command was added recently to
configure IP and interface parameters?
A. ip
17. Which ping commands will verify that the local
TCP/IP interface is working?
A.
ping localhost
ping
127.0.0.1
18. Which utility can the users use to find the MAC and
TCP/IP addresses of the Windows workstation?
A. ipconfig
/all
19. Which command-line tool would best be
used to verify DNS functionality in Linux?
A. dig
20. Which TCP/IP utility is most often used
to test whether an IP host is up and functional?
A. ping
Practice Test A (LO1)
1. Which
of the following statements is true about authentication in a client-server
fashion?
A. The server hosting resources ask for credentials, and the
client provides them.
2. Which
of the following networks connects multiple LANs using long-range transmission
media?
A. WAN
3. James,
a network engineer, is asked to implement a network encompassing the five-block
town center and nearby businesses. The inclusion of smartphones and
portable devices is crucial to the plan. Which of the following networks
will James implement?
A. MAN
4. Ethernet
is not only the standard used for almost all modern wired LANs, it’s also
increasingly being used for telecommunications and storage networks and
is even increasingly adopted as a WAN technology.
A. True
5. Which
of the following technologies is used to connect private devices?
A. PAN
6. Which
of the following standards are used within the telecommunication
networks?
A . MPLS
Frame Relay
7. Internet
is an example of the largest WAN.
A. True
8. A LAN
could have hundreds or thousands of nodes.
A. True
9. SDWAN
is a virtual WAN architecture that uses software to manage connectivity,
devices, and services and can make changes in the network that is based
on the current operations.
A. True
10. A
WAN operates using leased lines from a telecommunication provider, connecting
to the LANs in each site.
A. True
11. Which
of the following statements are true about networks?
A. In a logical network,
connections are the protocols that guide data to its destination address. Radio signals are part
of the physical network.
12. Which
of these is a primary concern for WANs?
A. Security
13. Which
type of network scope is often used to connect all or parts of a city?
A. MAN
14. Which
of the following statements are true about a logical network?
A. It is the information carried by
the physical network.
It is the network from the perspective
of the computers that use it.
It is the path that the information
follows.
15. Which
of these implies a line topology with reference to the point-to-point
connections?
A. Bus
16. An
effective network’s topology is a matter of planning, not organic growth.
A. True
17. Essential
WAN technologies include user-level connections, such as cable, DSL, or 4G.
A. True
18. Which
of these is a standardized rule for formatting data?
A. Protocol
19. Tasks,
such as data compression, decompression, encryption, and decryption, are all
associated with the presentation layer of the OSI model.
A. True
20. Which
of the following statements is correct about sessions in the session layer of
the OSI model?
A. They must be created, maintained
separately from other sessions, and ended.
21. Which
of the following statements are not true about the OSI model?
A. It describes network communication
in terms of the underlying network technology or structure.
It is a suite of protocols that serves
as the world's primary network standard.
22. Which
of the following statements is true about the data link layer of the OSI model?
A. It is subdivided into two sublayers, namely, MAC and LLC.
23. Which
of the following statements is correct about the OSI model in networking?
A. It is made up of seven layers
arranged vertically in what is called a stack.
A communication protocol or network
appliance can be described by the layer it occupies.
24. The
transport layer of the OSI model translates the data between network packets
and also the data used by applications.
A. True
26. The
OSI model is more general and widely used by network engineers to discuss
network theory, but most protocols that the users use daily were written
as part of the TCP/IP model.
A. True
27. Which
of the following statements is true about the twisted-pair cables?
Each balanced pair is warped around
itself for the cable’s length, so even a nearby source, such as a
parallel cable, will, on average, balance out.
28. APC
connectors can be used only with other APC connectors.
A. True
29. Which
type of cable uses low-smoke and fire-retardant materials?
Plenum
Ethernet
addressing uses the MAC address burned into each and every Ethernet NIC.
A. True
30. Which
of these are the common representations of binary values?
A. Hexadecimal
Octal
31. What
is the correct distance range of 1000BaseLX?
A. From 3 km up to 10 km
32. Which
of the following actions are taken by a learning bridge when it checks the
destination address against its MAC table?
A. If the destination is on the
same segment as the source, it filters the frame by ignoring it.
If the destination is in the table and
on a different segment from that source, it forwards the frame to only
that segment.
If the destination address isn’t in the
table, it floods the frame to all other segments except the source.
33. A
network technician has to perform maintenance on many of the company's web
servers during a scheduled change window. This maintenance should not
affect the service availability. Which of the following network devices
should the network technician use for this purpose?
A. Load balancer
34. Which
of these is not considered a network device?
Media
35. Which
DNS record is an IPv6 address record that maps a hostname to an IPv6 address?
A. AAAA
36. Which
of the following statements is true about the networking concepts?
A. A repeater is a node on the
physical network.
37. Which
of these best describes network reliability?
A. Minimal transmission errors, and
detection and correction of any that do occur
38. The
MIB is a database with a set of predefined questions that the NMS can ask the
agents regarding the health of the device or network.
A. True
39. Why is the TCP/IP model in such wide use,
despite its limitations?
A. It proved so robust and scalable that it was quickly adopted by the US government and
research networks that formed the early Internet.
40. Which of the following statements is
correct about SMB?
A. It allows folders or hard drives to be shared over the network and
accessed as if they were local drives.
41. Which of the following are the resource-sharing
protocols?
A. LDAP
SMB
42. What is the port number of SMB?
A. TCP 445
43. Which of the following IP addresses is
reserved for private use?
A. 10.100.200.0
44. Which of the following would be the most
efficient subnet mask for a subnetwork accommodating
eight hosts?
A. /28
45. A network technician in a company has to
create a subnet for 500 host machines. The technician is
instructed to use a class B address scheme and leave possible rooms for additional subnets of the
same size. Which of the following
addresses would fulfill these requirements?
A. 172.18.0.0/23
46. A technician is troubleshooting a
customer's network connectivity issue. He needs to determine the IP
address of the customer's router. The customer has an IP address of 192.168.1.55/24. Which of these is the
address of the customer's router?
A. 192.168.1.1
47. A company is setting up a new branch
office. The new office will have two departments, Finance and
Engineering. The Finance department will have 55 employees and the Engineering department will have 5
employees. The IP subscribed from
the ISP is 192.168.1.0/29. The network administrator is configuring the subnets for the two departments
starting with the Finance department.
What will be the last host address on the Engineering subnet?
A. 192.168.1.78
48. A network technician has to set up a
firewall on a company's network that would assign
private IP addresses to users inside the network and show a public IP address out to the Internet. Which of these should the
network technician use to achieve
this goal?
A. NAT
49. The original intention of NAT was to slow
the depletion of available IP address space by allowing many
private IP addresses to be represented by some smaller number of public IP addresses.
A. True
50. Why is a routing table more complicated
than a MAC table on a switch?
A. Because
each entry has to have more pieces of information
51. Both RIPv1 and RIPv2 are distance-vector protocols,
which means that each router running RIP sends
its complete routing tables out to all active interfaces at periodic time intervals.
A. True
52. Which of the following statements is true
about RIP?
A. Since it has a maximum allowable hop count of 15 by default, a hop
count of 16 would be deemed unreachable.
53. Which of these is not a distinct
function of the layer 2 switches?
A. Easy maintenance
53. Which of the following statements is true
regarding network convergence?
High-performance
TCP/IP networks augmented by additional technologies are increasingly
displacing other options.
54. Which of the cellular technologies is a
type of cell phone that contains a SIM chip?
A. GSM
55. An ad hoc network would not scale well and
is not recommended due to collision and organization issues.
A. True
56. What should you do if you cannot connect to
an AP and you've verified that your DHCP configuration and WEP
key are correct?
A. Check the MAC address filtering on the AP.
57. Which of the following statements is true
about the input errors?
They often indicate
high-level errors, such as CRCs.
58. Which of these is not a category of
the cause of disaster in a disaster recovery plan?
A. Technical
59. Which of the following protocols allows
active-active load balancing?
A. GLBP
60. Which of the following statements is true
about the dial-up access?
A. Some ISPs offer dial-up access to users who subscribe to other
services.
61. An attacker floods a switch with frames in
an attempt to redirect traffic to his server. Which of the
following attacks is the attacker most likely using?
A. ARP spoofing
62. An attacker, after gaining access to a
facility, places a wireless access point to make
it look as though it belongs to the network. He then begins eavesdropping on the wireless traffic. Which of the following
attacks has the attacker performed?
A. Evil twin
63. A hospital has installed CCTVs on all the
entrances and hallways to monitor the people entering and leaving
the facility. The camera feeds go to the surveillance room where security personnel monitors the activities.
One of the security personnel
notices a man wearing a doctor's lab coat whose identity cannot be verified by looking through the video feed. The man is
seen interacting and mobilizing
with other people around him. What kind of attack is the security personnel witnessing?
A. Social engineering
64. Which of the following statements is true
about RBAC?
A. It is commonly used in networks to simplify the process of assigning
new users the permission required to perform a job role.
65. A network technician configured a network
device. After restarting, the device was unresponsive. Even
after doing a hard reset, the device was not restored to factory defaults and did not display any output. Which
of these has the technician most
likely performed?
A. Firmware update
66. A company wants to secure its WLAN network
by implementing a method that will provide a web page
before the users ask for authentication credentials while allowing them access to the network. Which of these
will help in satisfying this requirement?
A. Captive portal
67. The most effective way to control both
authentication of remote users and the application of their
permissions is to provision an AAA server.
A. True
68. A network administrator has to implement a
physical security control method that can prevent an
attacker from gaining access to a network closet or server room. Which of these will help the network
administrator in achieving this goal?
A. Mantrap
69. Which of the following combinations will
form a two-factor authentication process?
A. Smart card and PIN
70. Which of the following statements is true
about access control hardware?
A. It comprises a category of devices that are used to identify and
authenticate users.
71. Which of these is a technique that writes
data patterns over the entire media, thereby eliminating any
trace data?
A. Overwriting
72. Which of the following services provides
the desktop and other resources?
A. DaaS
73. QoS refers to the way the resources are
controlled so that the quality of service is maintained.
A. True
74. Which of these are installed in racks, such
as servers, firewall appliances, and redundant power supplies?
A. System labeling
75. A network administrator is setting up a
web-based application that needs to be continually accessible to
the end-users. Which of the following concepts would best ensure
this requirement?
A. High availability
76. High memory utilization can be as severe as
a saturated A. CPU. True
77. Decibels can be used to describe the
absolute power level of a signal that’s being sent
or received or the relative losses due to the transmission medium.
A. True
78. Loopback adapters are only useful to verify
that the port transmits and receives electronics successfully.
True
79. A laser transmission would stay in a tight
beam and only suffer attenuation due to absorption by the air.
A. True
80. Which of the following statements is true
about SNR?
A. The higher the SNR, the lower the noise floor with respect to the
signal.
81. Members of a basic service set share a
48-bit identifier compatible with the MAC standard and included in
every Wi-Fi frame sent by its members. What is this identifier called?
A. BSSID
82. Which of these are some of the calamities
that the users should escalate while implementing the solution
during network troubleshooting?
A. Routing loops
Routing
problems
Broadcast
storms
83. Which of the following is not the
step for testing a theory when troubleshooting?
Measure
the plausibility of the theory against the most obvious cause of the problem.
84. On the network, you don’t just need to know
what the matter is, but you need to know how many users are
affected. Which of the following steps of problem identification is explained in the given information?
A. Identify the symptoms.
85. Which of these describes the resolution of
a problem while troubleshooting the network?
A. Planning and implementing a fix for the problem
86. Which of these is not a general
guideline for establishing the probable cause of a network problem?
A. Consider only the most relevant approach.
87. While troubleshooting a network, it's
important to view the identification of a problem as an ongoing
process.
A. True
88. The important troubleshooting process for
Network+ is CompTIA's five-step model.
A. False
89. Which of the following procedures are
employed when identifying a network problem?
A. Determine if anything has changed.
Question
users.
Approach
multiple problems individually.
90. Which of the following statements are true
about network troubleshooting?
A. The users can solve a surprising amount of problems by fiddling with
one piece of a system after another until things work.
The
important thing is that the specific methods find a complete process and stick to it,
especially during the diagnosis process.
Using a
systematic process will give the users quicker and more consistent results.
91. Which TCP/IP tool supersedes the ifconfig,
arp, and route commands?
A. ip
92. Which of the following TCP/IP tools tests
the reachability and latency of a given host?
A. Ping
93. Which of the following TCP/IP tools is a
more powerful alternative to nslookup for performing DNS lookups?
A. dig
Comments
Post a Comment