Skip to main content

BSAD520 Fundamentals Business Enterprise Quizzes


On a graph, consumer surplus is represented by the area

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
a

Table 7-1



Buyer

Willingness to Pay

(Dollars)

Calvin150
Sam135
Andrew120
Lori100


Refer to Table 7-1. If the price of the product is $110, then who would be willing to purchase the product?

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
c

Table 7-5



Buyer

Willingness to Pay

(Dollars)

Michael500
Earvin400
Larry350
Charles300


Refer to Table 7-5. You are selling extra tickets to the Midwest Regional Sweet 16 game in the men's NCAA basketball tournament. The table shows the willingness to pay of the four potential buyers in the market for a ticket to the game. Which of the following graphs represents the market demand curve?

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
a

Bob purchases a book for $6, and his consumer surplus is $2. How much is Bob willing to pay for the book?

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
c

If the price a consumer pays for a product is equal to a consumer's willingness to pay, then the consumer surplus relevant to that purchase is

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
a

All else equal, what happens to consumer surplus if the price of a good increases?

Incorrect
Solution
Correct Response
c

Cost is a measure of the

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
d

Table 7-7



Seller

Cost

(Dollars)

Abby1,600
Bobby1,300
Dianne1,100
Evaline900
Carlos800


Refer to Table 7-7 . If the market price is $1,000, the producer surplus in the market is

Incorrect
Solution
Correct Response
a

Table 7-10



Seller

Cost

(Dollars)

LeBron700
Kobe600
Kevin450
Steve400


Refer to Table 7-10. You want to hire a professional photographer to take pictures of your family. The table shows the costs of the four potential sellers in the local photography market. Which of the following graphs represents the market supply curve?

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
a

Figure 7-4

A         graph of price versus quantity is a supply curve, S, represented by a straight line ascending from         a point, for convenience called, (0, P 0) through points (Q 1, P 1), and (Q 2, P 2). Six points         are shown. Point A = (0, P 2). Point B = (0, P 1). Point C = (0, P 0), which designates the minimum         supply price. Point D = (Q 1, P 2). Point G = (Q 1, P 1). Point H = (Q 2, P 2).

Refer to Figure 7-4 . Which area represents producer surplus when the price is P ?

Incorrect
Solution
Correct Response
a

Figure 7-5

A         graph of price versus quantity shows two parallel demand curves and two parallel supply curves.         From left to right they are D and D prime, and S prime and S. Curve S is a straight line ascending         from the origin through points (50, 100) and (75, 150). Curve S prime is a straight line ascending         from (0, 100) through points (25, 150), and (50, 200). Curve D is a straight line descending from         (0, 200), to (100, 0). Curve D prime is a straight line descending from (0, 300) to (150, 0). Curve         D prime intersects Curve S prime at point. (50, 200). Curve D prime intersects Curve S at point         (75, 150). Curve S intersects Curve D at point (50, 100). Curve D intersects Curve S prime at point         (25, 150).

Refer to Figure 7-5. If the supply curve is S, the demand curve is D, and the equilibrium price is $100, what is the producer surplus?

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
c

Figure 7-5

A         graph of price versus quantity shows two parallel demand curves and two parallel supply curves.         From left to right they are D and D prime, and S prime and S. Curve S is a straight line ascending         from the origin through points (50, 100) and (75, 150). Curve S prime is a straight line ascending         from (0, 100) through points (25, 150), and (50, 200). Curve D is a straight line descending from         (0, 200), to (100, 0). Curve D prime is a straight line descending from (0, 300) to (150, 0). Curve         D prime intersects Curve S prime at point. (50, 200). Curve D prime intersects Curve S at point         (75, 150). Curve S intersects Curve D at point (50, 100). Curve D intersects Curve S prime at point         (25, 150).

Refer to Figure 7-5. If the supply curve is S and the demand curve shifts from D to D', what is the change in producer surplus?

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
c

Figure 7-5

A         graph of price versus quantity shows two parallel demand curves and two parallel supply curves.         From left to right they are D and D prime, and S prime and S. Curve S is a straight line ascending         from the origin through points (50, 100) and (75, 150). Curve S prime is a straight line ascending         from (0, 100) through points (25, 150), and (50, 200). Curve D is a straight line descending from         (0, 200), to (100, 0). Curve D prime is a straight line descending from (0, 300) to (150, 0). Curve         D prime intersects Curve S prime at point. (50, 200). Curve D prime intersects Curve S at point         (75, 150). Curve S intersects Curve D at point (50, 100). Curve D intersects Curve S prime at point         (25, 150).

Refer to Figure 7-5. If the supply curve is S and the demand curve shifts from D to D', what is the increase in producer surplus due to new producers entering the market?

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
c

Figure 7-6

A         graph of price versus quantity is a supply curve, S, represented by a straight line ascending from         a point, for convenience called, (0, P 0) through points (Q 1, P 1), and (Q 2, P 2). The area bounded         by points (0, 0), (Q 2, 0), (Q 2, P 2), and (0, P 2), is transected by Curve S. To the left of Curve         S the area is divided into two triangles and a rectangle. To the right of Curve S, the area is divided         into two trapezoids. From top to bottom and left to right, the regions are as follow. Rectangle         A, to the left of Curve S, has the following vertices. (0, P 2), (Q 1, P 2), (Q 1, P 1), (0, P 1).         Triangle B, bordering Curve S to the left, has the following vertices. (Q 1, P 2), (Q2, P 2), (Q         1, P 1). Triangle C, bordering Curve S to the left, has the following vertices. (0, P 1), (Q 1,         P 1), (0, P 0). Trapezoid D, bordering Curve S to the right, has the following vertices. (0, 0),         (0, P 0), (Q 1, P 1), (Q 1, 0). Trapezoid G, bordering Curve S to the right, has the following vertices.         (Q 1, 0), (Q 1, P 1), (Q 2, P 2), (Q 2, 0).

Refer to Figure 7-6. When the price is P2, producer surplus is

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
a

Figure 7-8

A         graph of price, P, versus quantity, Q, shows a supply curve, S, rising linearly from the origin,         designated as Point L, through Point N = (M, K), and a demand curve, D, descending linearly from         point (0, J) to point (R, 0). The curves intersect at point (M, K).

Refer to Figure 7-8. Total surplus can be measured as the area

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
c

The area below the demand curve and above the supply curve measures the producer surplus in a market.

Incorrect
Solution
Correct Response
false

The lower the price, the lower the producer surplus, all else equal.

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
true

Producer surplus measures the benefit to sellers from receiving a price above their costs.

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
true

When markets fail, public policy can potentially remedy the problem and increase economic efficiency.

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
true

Market power and externalities are examples of market failures.

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
true

In a competitive market, sales go to those producers who are willing to supply the product at the lowest price.

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
true

Producer surplus is the cost of production minus the amount a seller is paid.

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
false

All else equal, a decrease in demand will cause an increase in producer surplus.

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
false

The area below the price and above the supply curve measures the producer surplus in a market.

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
true

The cost of production plus producer surplus is the price a seller is paid.

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
true

Henry is willing to pay 45 cents, and Janine is willing to pay 55 cents, for 1 pound of bananas. When the price of bananas falls from 50 cents a pound to 40 cents a pound,

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
b

Dawn's bridal boutique is having a sale on evening dresses. The increase in consumer surplus comes from the benefit of the lower prices to

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
b

Suppose there is an early freeze in California that reduces the size of the lemon crop. As the price of lemons rises, what happens to consumer surplus in the market for lemons?

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
d

If the cost of producing sofas decreases causing the price of sofas to decrease,  consumer surplus in the sofa market will

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
b

When the demand for a good increases and the supply of the good remains unchanged, consumer surplus

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
c

Figure 7-1

A         graph of price, P, versus quantity, Q, is a demand curve, D, represented by a straight line descending         from (0, Maximum Price) to (Maximum Quantity, 0). Two points are shown on the curve, from left to         right, (Q 2, P 2), and (Q 1, P 1). Q 1 is greater than Q 2, and P 1 is less than P 2. The area under         Curve D between Q = 0 and Q = Q 1 is divided into three rectangles and two triangles, as follows.         From top to bottom, and left to right, they are as follow. Triangle A has the following vertices.         (0, Maximum Price), (Q 2, P2,) (0, P 2). Rectangle B has the following vertices. (0, P 2), (Q 2,         P 2), (Q 2, P 1), (0, P 1). Triangle C has the following vertices. (Q 2, P 2), (Q 1, P 1), (Q 2,         P 1). Rectangle D has the following vertices. (0, P 1), (Q 2, P 1), (Q 2, 0), (0, 0). Rectangle         F has the following vertices. (Q 2, P 1), (Q 1, P 1), (Q 1, 0), (Q 2, 0).

Refer to Figure 7-1 . When the price rises from P to P , consumer surplus

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
d

Producer surplus is

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
a

Figure 7-6

A         graph of price versus quantity is a supply curve, S, represented by a straight line ascending from         a point, for convenience called, (0, P 0) through points (Q 1, P 1), and (Q 2, P 2). The area bounded         by points (0, 0), (Q 2, 0), (Q 2, P 2), and (0, P 2), is transected by Curve S. To the left of Curve         S the area is divided into two triangles and a rectangle. To the right of Curve S, the area is divided         into two trapezoids. From top to bottom and left to right, the regions are as follow. Rectangle         A, to the left of Curve S, has the following vertices. (0, P 2), (Q 1, P 2), (Q 1, P 1), (0, P 1).         Triangle B, bordering Curve S to the left, has the following vertices. (Q 1, P 2), (Q2, P 2), (Q         1, P 1). Triangle C, bordering Curve S to the left, has the following vertices. (0, P 1), (Q 1,         P 1), (0, P 0). Trapezoid D, bordering Curve S to the right, has the following vertices. (0, 0),         (0, P 0), (Q 1, P 1), (Q 1, 0). Trapezoid G, bordering Curve S to the right, has the following vertices.         (Q 1, 0), (Q 1, P 1), (Q 2, P 2), (Q 2, 0).

Refer to Figure 7-6. Area A represents

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
c

Producer surplus directly measures

Incorrect
Solution
Correct Response
d

Which of the following will cause an increase in producer surplus?

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
b

Which of the following events would increase producer surplus?

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
d

Which tools allow economists to determine if the allocation of resources determined by free markets is desirable?

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
d

We can say that the allocation of resources is efficient if

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
c

The distinction between efficiency and equality can be described as follows:

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
d

If an allocation of resources is efficient, then

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
a

Moving production from a high-cost producer to a low-cost producer will

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
c

If a consumer places a value of $15 on a particular good and if the price of the good is $17, then the

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
d

An example of a perfectly competitive market would be the

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
b

The line that relates the price of a good and the quantity demanded of that good is called the demand

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
c

Which of the following changes would not shift the demand curve for a good or service?

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
c

Which of the following changes would not shift the demand curve for a good or service?

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
c

If a decrease in income increases the demand for a good, then the good is

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
c

A likely example of substitute goods for most people would be

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
c

When the quantity demanded has increased at every price, it might be because

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
b

 Which of the following demonstrates the law of supply?

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
b

When we move along a given supply curve,

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
d

If something happens to alter the quantity supplied at any given price, then

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
b

If the supply of a product increases, then we would expect equilibrium price

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
a

If a surplus exists in a market, then we know that the actual price is

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
a

Figure 4-7

A         graph of price versus quantity shows a demand curve, D, a straight line descending from (0, 45),         to (600, 15), and a supply curve, S, a straight line ascending from (0, 5) to (600, 35). The curves         intersect at (400, 25). On Curve D the points (200, 35), (300, 30), (400, 25), (500, 20), and (600,         15) are shown. On Curve S, the points (200, 15), (300, 20), (400, 25), (500, 30), and (600, 35),         are shown.

Refer to Figure 4-7. At a price of $35, there would be a

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
d

What would happen to the equilibrium price and quantity of lattés if coffee shops began using a machine that reduced the amount of labor necessary to produce them?

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
c

Figure 4-10

A         graph of price versus quantity shows two parallel demand curves and two parallel supply curves.         From left to right they are Demand 1 and Demand 2, and Supply 1 and Supply 2. Each demand curve         is a straight line descending from the upper left to the lower right, and each supply curve is a         straight line ascending from the lower left to the upper right. Demand 1 and Supply 1 intersect         at Point A, Demand 1 and Supply 2 intersect at Point B, Demand 2 and Supply 2 intersect at Point         C, and Demand 2 and Supply 1 intersect at Point D. Note that Points A, B, C, D, form a diamond pattern.

Refer to Figure 4-10. Which of the following movements would illustrate the effect in the market for golf balls of an increase in green fees?

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
d

Figure 4-10

A         graph of price versus quantity shows two parallel demand curves and two parallel supply curves.         From left to right they are Demand 1 and Demand 2, and Supply 1 and Supply 2. Each demand curve         is a straight line descending from the upper left to the lower right, and each supply curve is a         straight line ascending from the lower left to the upper right. Demand 1 and Supply 1 intersect         at Point A, Demand 1 and Supply 2 intersect at Point B, Demand 2 and Supply 2 intersect at Point         C, and Demand 2 and Supply 1 intersect at Point D. Note that Points A, B, C, D, form a diamond pattern.

Refer to Figure 4-10. Which of the following movements would illustrate the effect in the market for chocolate chip cookies of an improved high-speed mixer that allows bakers to produce cookies in less time?

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
c

The law of demand states that, other things equal, when the price of a good rises, the quantity demanded of the good falls, and when the price falls, the quantity demanded rises.

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
true

A decrease in demand shifts the demand curve to the left.

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
true

If the demand for a good falls when income falls, then the good is called an inferior good.

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
false

A decrease in the price of a complement will shift the demand curve for a good to the left.

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
false

If baked potatoes and sour cream are complements, then an increase in the price of sour cream decreases the demand for baked potatoes.

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
true

If a person expects the price of pumpkins to increase next month, then that person’s current demand for pumpkins will increase.

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
true

Price cannot fall so low that some sellers choose to supply a quantity of zero.

Incorrect
Solution
Correct Response
false

An increase in the price of a product and an increase in the number of sellers in the market affect the supply curve in the same general way.

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
false

If there is an improvement in the technology used to produce a good, then the supply curve for that good will shift to the left.

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
false

The equilibrium price is the same as the market-clearing price.

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
true

The actions of buyers and sellers naturally move markets toward equilibrium.

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
true

When the market price is above the equilibrium price, suppliers are unable to sell all they want to sell.

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
true

Demand refers to the amount buyers wish to buy, whereas the quantity demanded refers to the position of the demand curve.

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
false

An increase in supply will cause a decrease in price, which will cause an increase in demand.

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
false

Figure 4-2

 Consumer 1Consumer 2
Consumer             Ones demand curve, D, of price versus quantity is a straight line descending from (0, 10) to (10,             0).Consumer             Twos demand curve, D, of price versus quantity is a straight line descending from (0, 15) to (25,             0).

Refer to Figure 4-2. If these are the only two consumers in the market, then the market quantity demanded at a price of $15 is

Correct
Solution
Correct Response
c

1.  Chapter TF, Section .01, Problem 003

The board of directors is the highest ranking body in a corporation, and the chairman of the board is the highest ranking individual. The CEO generally works under the board and its chairman, and the board generally has the authority to remove the CEO under certain conditions. The CEO, however, cannot remove the board, but he or she can endeavor to have the board voted out and a new board voted in should a conflict arise. It is possible for a person to simultaneously serve as CEO and chairman of the board, though many corporate control experts believe it is bad to vest both offices in the same person.
Correct
Check My Work Feedback
Correct.
Solution
Correct Response
true

2.  Chapter TF, Section .01, Problem 004

Partnerships and proprietorships generally have a tax advantage over corporations.
Correct
Check My Work Feedback
Correct.
Solution
Correct Response
true

3.  Chapter TF, Section .01, Problem 005

A disadvantage of the corporate form of organization is that corporate stockholders are more exposed to personal liabilities in the event of bankruptcy than are investors in a typical partnership.
Correct
Check My Work Feedback
Correct.
Solution
Correct Response
false

4.  Chapter TF, Section .01, Problem 001

In most corporations, the CFO ranks under the CEO.
Correct
Check My Work Feedback
Correct.
Solution
Correct Response
true

5.  Chapter TF, Section .01, Problem 014

The more capital a firm is likely to require, the greater the probability that it will be organized as a corporation.
Correct
Check My Work Feedback
Correct.
Solution
Correct Response
true

6.  Chapter TF, Section .01, Problem 016

Organizing as a corporation makes it easier for the firm to raise capital. This is because corporations' stockholders are not subject to personal liabilities if the firm goes bankrupt and also because it is easier to transfer shares of stock than partnership interests.
Correct
Check My Work Feedback
Correct.
Solution
Correct Response
true

7.  Chapter TF, Section .01, Problem 017

In order to maximize its shareholders' value, a firm's management must attempt to maximize the stock price in the long run, or the stock's "intrinsic value."
Correct
Check My Work Feedback
Correct.
Solution
Correct Response
true

8.  Chapter TF, Section .01, Problem 023

A stock's market price would equal its intrinsic value if all investors had all the information that is available about the stock. In this case the stock's market price would equal its intrinsic value.
Correct
Check My Work Feedback
Correct.
Solution
Correct Response
true

9.  Chapter TF, Section .01, Problem 026

For a stock to be in equilibrium as the book defines it, its market price should exceed its intrinsic value.
Correct
Check My Work Feedback
Correct.
Solution
Correct Response
false

10.  Chapter MC, Section .01, Problem 046

The primary operating goal of a publicly-owned firm trying to best serve its stockholders should be to
Correct
Solution
Correct Response
b


The annual report contains four basic financial statements: the income statement, the balance sheet, the cash flow statement, and the statement of stockholders' equity.

a. True

b. False

Hide Feedback

Correct

Check My Work Feedback

Correct.

Solution

Correct Response

true

On the balance sheet, total assets must always equal the sum of total liabilities and equity.

a. True

b. False

Hide Feedback

Correct

Check My Work Feedback

Correct.

Solution

Correct Response

true

The income statement shows the difference between a firm's income and its costs—i.e., its profits—during a specified period of time. However, not all reported income comes in the form of cash, and reported costs likewise may not be consistent with cash outlays. Therefore, there may be a substantial difference between a firm's reported profits and its actual cash flow for the same period.

a. True

b. False

Hide Feedback

Correct

Check My Work Feedback

Correct.

Solution

Correct Response

true

The balance sheet represents a snapshot in time, whereas the income statement reports on operations over a period of time.

a. True

b. False

Hide Feedback

Correct

Check My Work Feedback

Correct.

Solution

Correct Response

true

EBIT, often referred to as operating income, stands for "earnings before interest and taxes."

a. True

b. False

Hide Feedback

Correct

Check My Work Feedback

Correct.

Solution

Correct Response

true

6.  Chapter TF, Section .03, Problem 011

§  

Consider the following balance sheet for Games Inc. Because Games has $800,000 of retained earnings, we know that the company would be able to pay cash to buy an asset with a cost of $200,000.

Cash

$50,000

 

Accounts payable

$100,000

 

Inventory

$200,000

 

Accruals

$100,000

 

Accounts receivable

$250,000

 

Total CL

$200,000

 

Total CA

$500,000

 

Long-term debt

$200,000

 

Net fixed assets

$900,000

 

Common stock

$200,000

 

 

 

 

Retained earnings

$800,000

 

Total assets

$1,400,000

 

Total L & E

$1,400,000

 

a. True

b. False

Hide Feedback

Correct

Check My Work Feedback

Correct.

Post Submission Feedback

Note that the firm has only $50,000 of cash. It would have to either sell assets or borrow $150,000 to pay cash for the new asset. That might not be possible.

Solution

Correct Response

false

7.  Chapter TF, Section .03, Problem 014

§  

The value of any asset is the present value of the cash flows the asset is expected to provide. The cash flows a business is able to provide to its investors is its free cash flow. This is the reason that FCF is so important in finance.

a. True

b. False

Hide Feedback

Correct

Check My Work Feedback

Correct.

Solution

Correct Response

true

8.  Chapter TF, Section .03, Problem 012

§  

Typically, the statement of stockholders' equity starts with total stockholders' equity at the beginning of the year, adds net income, subtracts dividends paid, and ends with total stockholders' equity at the end of the year. Over time, a profitable company will have earnings in excess of the dividends it pays out, resulting in a substantial amount of retained earnings shown on the balance sheet.

a. True

b. False

Hide Feedback

Correct

Check My Work Feedback

Correct.

Solution

Correct Response

true

        9.  Chapter TF, Section .03, Problem 018

§  

The balance sheet measures the flow of funds into and out of various accounts over time, while the income statement measures the firm's financial position at a point in time.

a. True

b. False

Hide Feedback

Correct

Check My Work Feedback

Correct.

Solution

Correct Response

false

10.  Chapter TF, Section .03, Problem 026

§  

To estimate the cash flow from operations, depreciation must be added back to net income because depreciation is a non-cash charge that has been deducted from revenue in the net income calculation.

a. True

b. False

Hide Feedback

Correct

Check My Work Feedback

Correct.

Solution

Correct Response

true

  1. The higher the interest rate the higher the FV.
    1. T

True

    1. F

False

  1. Question 2

This is a question on the Finance quiz.

    1. T

True

  1. F

False

  1. Question 3

What is my monthly mortgage payment on a $200,000 mortgage with a 5% interest rate on a 30-year mortgage?

$1,074

$13,010

$1,084

$556

  1. Question 4

What is the FV of a series of $7,000 annual payments over 10 years if I can earn 9%?

$107,350.51

$106,350.51

$115,922.06

$115,350.51

  1. Question 5

The lower the discount rate the lower my PV on a series of future payments?

    1. T

True

    1. F

False

  1. Question 6

The further out I receive a FV, the higher the PV.

    1. T

True

    1. F

False

  1. Question 7

The higher the rate earned the fewer number of years it will take to get to a given future value

    1. T

True

    1. F

False

  1. Question 8

The higher the future payments the higher my PV all else equal?

    1. T

True

    1. F

False

  1. Question 9

What is the PV of a series of $5,000 annual payments over 5 years if the discount rate is 8%?

$19,964

$25,000

$29,333

Need more information

  1. Question 10

The higher the discount rate or interest rate the lower my PV.

    1. T

True

    1. F

False

  1. Question 11

What rate of return did I earn if I invest $50,000 and receive $75,000 seven years later?

5.69% per year

5.96% per year

6.5% per year

5.69% per month

  1. Question 12

The more money I invest the higher the Future Value (FV)

    1. T

True

    1. F

False

  1. Question 13

Essentially, the value of stocks and bonds is the discounted value of their cash flows or dividends?

    1. T

True

    1. F

False

  1. Question 14

How much would I pay for a lump sum of $15,000 in 3 years if my required return is 10%?

$11,269,72

$1,126.972

$12,269.27

$10,102.22

  1. Question 15

How many years will it take to generate $500,000 if I can invest $50,000 now and invest $5,000 annually at a rate of8%?

22 Years

23 Years

20 Years

21 Years

  1. Question 16

To calculate a loan payment I must adjust my number of periods and my interest rate to reflect the payment terms (monthly, quarterly)

    1. T

True

    1. F

False

  1. Question 17

What is the PV of $40,000 received in 5 years if the rate or return or discount rate is 6%?

$29,890.33

$28,980.33

$29,980.33

$26,980.33

  1. Question 18

What is the FV of $10,000 in 5 years at a 7% rate of return?

-$14,025.52

$1,4025.52

$14,025.52

$14,125.52

  1. Question 19

The more time I have to invest the lower my FV

    1. T

True

    1. F

False

  1. Question 20

What is the FV of $50,000 invested in 9 years if I can earn 5%?

$48,163.47

$32,230.45

$75,566.48

$77,566.41

Assume that interest rates on 20-year Treasury and corporate bonds with different ratings, all of which are noncallable, are as follows:

 T-bond = 7.72%          A = 9.64%
AAA = 8.72%               BBB = 10.18%

The differences in rates among these issues were most probably caused primarily by:

a. Maturity risk differences.

b. Inflation differences.

c. Default risk and liquidity differences.

d. Real risk-free rate differences.

e. Tax effects.

Hide Feedback

Correct

The price sensitivity of a bond to a given change in interest rates is generally greater the longer the bond's remaining maturity.

 a. True

 b. False

Hide Feedback

Correct

Check My Work Feedback

Correct.

A call provision gives bondholders the right to demand, or "call for," repayment of a bond. Typically, companies call bonds if interest rates rise and do not call them if interest rates decline.

 a. True

 b. False

Hide Feedback

Correct

Check My Work Feedback

Correct.

Assume that all interest rates in the economy decline from 10% to 9%. Which of the following bonds would have the largest percentage increase in price?

a. An 8-year bond with a 9% coupon.

b. A 3-year bond with a 10% coupon.

c. A 10-year zero coupon bond.

d. A 1-year bond with a 15% coupon.

e. A 10-year bond with a 10% coupon.

Hide Feedback

Correct

A 10-year bond pays an annual coupon, its YTM is 8%, and it currently trades at a premium. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a. If the yield to maturity remains at 8%, then the bond's price will decline over the next year.

b. If the yield to maturity remains at 8%, then the bond's price will remain constant over the next year.

c. The bond's coupon rate is less than 8%.

d. The bond's current yield is less than 8%.

e. If the yield to maturity increases, then the bond's price will increase.

Hide Feedback

Correct

Because short-term interest rates are much more volatile than long-term rates, you would, in the real world, generally be subject to much more price risk if you purchased a 30-day bond than if you bought a 30-year bond.

 a. True

 b. False

Hide Feedback

Correct

Check My Work Feedback

Correct.

Sinking funds are provisions included in bond indentures that require companies to retire bonds on a scheduled basis prior to their final maturity. Many indentures allow the company to acquire bonds for sinking fund purposes by either (1) purchasing bonds on the open market at the going market price or (2) selecting the bonds to be called by a lottery administered by the trustee, in which case the price paid is the bond's face value.

 a. True

 b. False

Hide Feedback

Correct

Check My Work Feedback

Correct.

A 12-year bond has an annual coupon of 9%. The coupon rate will remain fixed until the bond matures. The bond has a yield to maturity of 7%. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a. If market interest rates remain unchanged, the bond's price one year from now will be higher than it is today.

b. The bond is currently selling at a price below its par value.

c. If market interest rates remain unchanged, the bond's price one year from now will be lower than it is today.

d. If market interest rates decline, the price of the bond will also decline.

e. The bond should currently be selling at its par value.

Hide Feedback

Correct

A bond has a $1,000 par value, makes annual interest payments of $100, has 5 years to maturity, cannot be called, and is not expected to default. The bond should sell at a premium if market interest rates are below 10% and at a discount if interest rates are greater than 10%.

 a. True

 b. False

Hide Feedback

Correct

Check My Work Feedback

Correct.

There is an inverse relationship between bonds' quality ratings and their required rates of return. Thus, the required return is lowest for AAA-rated bonds, and required returns increase as the ratings get lower.

 a. True

 b. False

Hide Feedback

Correct

Check My Work Feedback

Correct.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a. The shorter the time to maturity, the greater the change in the value of a bond in response to a given change in interest rates, other things held constant.

b. The longer the time to maturity, the smaller the change in the value of a bond in response to a given change in interest rates.

c. You hold two bonds, a 10-year, zero coupon, issue and a 10-year bond that pays a 6% annual coupon. The same market rate, 6%, applies to both bonds. If the market rate rises from its current level, the zero coupon bond will experience the larger percentage decline.

d. The time to maturity does not affect the change in the value of a bond in response to a given change in interest rates.

e. You hold two bonds. One is a 10-year, zero coupon, bond and the other is a 10-year bond that pays a 6% annual coupon. The same market rate, 6%, applies to both bonds. If the market rate rises from the current level, the zero coupon bond will experience the smaller percentage decline.

Hide Feedback

Correct

Three $1,000 face value, 10-year, noncallable, bonds have the same amount of risk, hence their YTMs are equal. Bond 8 has an 8% annual coupon, Bond 10 has a 10% annual coupon, and Bond 12 has a 12% annual coupon. Bond 10 sells at par. Assuming that interest rates remain constant for the next 10 years, which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a. Bond 8 sells at a discount (its price is less than par), and its price is expected to increase over the next year.

b. Since the bonds have the same YTM, they should all have the same price, and since interest rates are not expected to change, their prices should all remain at their current levels until maturity.

c. Bond 12 sells at a premium (its price is greater than par), and its price is expected to increase over the next year.

d. Bond 8's current yield will increase each year.

e. Over the next year, Bond 8's price is expected to decrease, Bond 10's price is expected to stay the same, and Bond 12's price is expected to increase.

Hide Feedback

Correct

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a. If a bond's yield to maturity exceeds its coupon rate, the bond will sell at a premium over par.

b. A zero coupon bond's current yield is equal to its yield to maturity.

c. All else equal, if a bond's yield to maturity increases, its price will fall.

d. If a bond's yield to maturity exceeds its coupon rate, the bond will sell at par.

e. All else equal, if a bond's yield to maturity increases, its current yield will fall.

Hide Feedback

Correct

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a. All else equal, high-coupon bonds have less reinvestment risk than low-coupon bonds.

b. All else equal, long-term bonds have less price risk than short-term bonds.

c. All else equal, low-coupon bonds have less price risk than high-coupon bonds.

d. All else equal, short-term bonds have less reinvestment risk than long-term bonds.

e. All else equal, long-term bonds have less reinvestment risk than short-term bonds.

Hide Feedback

Correct

A 15-year bond with a face value of $1,000 currently sells for $850. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a. The bond's yield to maturity is greater than its coupon rate.

b. The bond's current yield exceeds its yield to maturity.

c. If the yield to maturity stays constant until the bond matures, the bond's price will remain at $850.

d. The bond's coupon rate exceeds its current yield.

e. The bond's current yield is equal to its coupon rate.

Hide Feedback

Correct

 

The annual report contains four basic financial statements: the income statement, the balance sheet, the cash flow statement, and the statement of stockholders' equity.

a. True

b. False

Hide Feedback

Correct

Check My Work Feedback

Correct.

Solution

Correct Response

true

On the balance sheet, total assets must always equal the sum of total liabilities and equity.

a. True

b. False

Hide Feedback

Correct

Check My Work Feedback

Correct.

Solution

Correct Response

true

The income statement shows the difference between a firm's income and its costs—i.e., its profits—during a specified period of time. However, not all reported income comes in the form of cash, and reported costs likewise may not be consistent with cash outlays. Therefore, there may be a substantial difference between a firm's reported profits and its actual cash flow for the same period.

a. True

b. False

Hide Feedback

Correct

Check My Work Feedback

Correct.

Solution

Correct Response

true

The balance sheet represents a snapshot in time, whereas the income statement reports on operations over a period of time.

a. True

b. False

Hide Feedback

Correct

Check My Work Feedback

Correct.

Solution

Correct Response

true

EBIT, often referred to as operating income, stands for "earnings before interest and taxes."

a. True

b. False

Hide Feedback

Correct

Check My Work Feedback

Correct.

Solution

Correct Response

true

6.  Chapter TF, Section .03, Problem 011

§  

Consider the following balance sheet for Games Inc. Because Games has $800,000 of retained earnings, we know that the company would be able to pay cash to buy an asset with a cost of $200,000.

Cash

$50,000

 

Accounts payable

$100,000

 

Inventory

$200,000

 

Accruals

$100,000

 

Accounts receivable

$250,000

 

Total CL

$200,000

 

Total CA

$500,000

 

Long-term debt

$200,000

 

Net fixed assets

$900,000

 

Common stock

$200,000

 

 

 

 

Retained earnings

$800,000

 

Total assets

$1,400,000

 

Total L & E

$1,400,000

 

a. True

b. False

Hide Feedback

Correct

Check My Work Feedback

Correct.

Post Submission Feedback

Note that the firm has only $50,000 of cash. It would have to either sell assets or borrow $150,000 to pay cash for the new asset. That might not be possible.

Solution

Correct Response

false

7.  Chapter TF, Section .03, Problem 014

§  

The value of any asset is the present value of the cash flows the asset is expected to provide. The cash flows a business is able to provide to its investors is its free cash flow. This is the reason that FCF is so important in finance.

a. True

b. False

Hide Feedback

Correct

Check My Work Feedback

Correct.

Solution

Correct Response

true

8.  Chapter TF, Section .03, Problem 012

§  

Typically, the statement of stockholders' equity starts with total stockholders' equity at the beginning of the year, adds net income, subtracts dividends paid, and ends with total stockholders' equity at the end of the year. Over time, a profitable company will have earnings in excess of the dividends it pays out, resulting in a substantial amount of retained earnings shown on the balance sheet.

a. True

b. False

Hide Feedback

Correct

Check My Work Feedback

Correct.

Solution

Correct Response

true

        9.  Chapter TF, Section .03, Problem 018

§  

The balance sheet measures the flow of funds into and out of various accounts over time, while the income statement measures the firm's financial position at a point in time.

a. True

b. False

Hide Feedback

Correct

Check My Work Feedback

Correct.

Solution

Correct Response

false

10.  Chapter TF, Section .03, Problem 026

§  

To estimate the cash flow from operations, depreciation must be added back to net income because depreciation is a non-cash charge that has been deducted from revenue in the net income calculation.

a. True

b. False

Hide Feedback

Correct

Check My Work Feedback

Correct.

Solution

Correct Response

true

  1. The higher the interest rate the higher the FV.
    1. T

True

    1. F

False

  1. Question 2

This is a question on the Finance quiz.

    1. T

True

  1. F

False

  1. Question 3

What is my monthly mortgage payment on a $200,000 mortgage with a 5% interest rate on a 30-year mortgage?

$1,074

$13,010

$1,084

$556

  1. Question 4

What is the FV of a series of $7,000 annual payments over 10 years if I can earn 9%?

$107,350.51

$106,350.51

$115,922.06

$115,350.51

  1. Question 5

The lower the discount rate the lower my PV on a series of future payments?

    1. T

True

    1. F

False

  1. Question 6

The further out I receive a FV, the higher the PV.

    1. T

True

    1. F

False

  1. Question 7

The higher the rate earned the fewer number of years it will take to get to a given future value

    1. T

True

    1. F

False

  1. Question 8

The higher the future payments the higher my PV all else equal?

    1. T

True

    1. F

False

  1. Question 9

What is the PV of a series of $5,000 annual payments over 5 years if the discount rate is 8%?

$19,964

$25,000

$29,333

Need more information

  1. Question 10

The higher the discount rate or interest rate the lower my PV.

    1. T

True

    1. F

False

  1. Question 11

What rate of return did I earn if I invest $50,000 and receive $75,000 seven years later?

5.69% per year

5.96% per year

6.5% per year

5.69% per month

  1. Question 12

The more money I invest the higher the Future Value (FV)

    1. T

True

    1. F

False

  1. Question 13

Essentially, the value of stocks and bonds is the discounted value of their cash flows or dividends?

    1. T

True

    1. F

False

  1. Question 14

How much would I pay for a lump sum of $15,000 in 3 years if my required return is 10%?

$11,269,72

$1,126.972

$12,269.27

$10,102.22

  1. Question 15

How many years will it take to generate $500,000 if I can invest $50,000 now and invest $5,000 annually at a rate of8%?

22 Years

23 Years

20 Years

21 Years

  1. Question 16

To calculate a loan payment I must adjust my number of periods and my interest rate to reflect the payment terms (monthly, quarterly)

    1. T

True

    1. F

False

  1. Question 17

What is the PV of $40,000 received in 5 years if the rate or return or discount rate is 6%?

$29,890.33

$28,980.33

$29,980.33

$26,980.33

  1. Question 18

What is the FV of $10,000 in 5 years at a 7% rate of return?

-$14,025.52

$1,4025.52

$14,025.52

$14,125.52

  1. Question 19

The more time I have to invest the lower my FV

    1. T

True

    1. F

False

  1. Question 20

What is the FV of $50,000 invested in 9 years if I can earn 5%?

$48,163.47

$32,230.45

$75,566.48

$77,566.41

Assume that interest rates on 20-year Treasury and corporate bonds with different ratings, all of which are noncallable, are as follows:

 T-bond = 7.72%          A = 9.64%
AAA = 8.72%               BBB = 10.18%

The differences in rates among these issues were most probably caused primarily by:

a. Maturity risk differences.

b. Inflation differences.

c. Default risk and liquidity differences.

d. Real risk-free rate differences.

e. Tax effects.

Hide Feedback

Correct

The price sensitivity of a bond to a given change in interest rates is generally greater the longer the bond's remaining maturity.

 a. True

 b. False

Hide Feedback

Correct

Check My Work Feedback

Correct.

A call provision gives bondholders the right to demand, or "call for," repayment of a bond. Typically, companies call bonds if interest rates rise and do not call them if interest rates decline.

 a. True

 b. False

Hide Feedback

Correct

Check My Work Feedback

Correct.

Assume that all interest rates in the economy decline from 10% to 9%. Which of the following bonds would have the largest percentage increase in price?

a. An 8-year bond with a 9% coupon.

b. A 3-year bond with a 10% coupon.

c. A 10-year zero coupon bond.

d. A 1-year bond with a 15% coupon.

e. A 10-year bond with a 10% coupon.

Hide Feedback

Correct

A 10-year bond pays an annual coupon, its YTM is 8%, and it currently trades at a premium. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a. If the yield to maturity remains at 8%, then the bond's price will decline over the next year.

b. If the yield to maturity remains at 8%, then the bond's price will remain constant over the next year.

c. The bond's coupon rate is less than 8%.

d. The bond's current yield is less than 8%.

e. If the yield to maturity increases, then the bond's price will increase.

Hide Feedback

Correct

Because short-term interest rates are much more volatile than long-term rates, you would, in the real world, generally be subject to much more price risk if you purchased a 30-day bond than if you bought a 30-year bond.

 a. True

 b. False

Hide Feedback

Correct

Check My Work Feedback

Correct.

Sinking funds are provisions included in bond indentures that require companies to retire bonds on a scheduled basis prior to their final maturity. Many indentures allow the company to acquire bonds for sinking fund purposes by either (1) purchasing bonds on the open market at the going market price or (2) selecting the bonds to be called by a lottery administered by the trustee, in which case the price paid is the bond's face value.

 a. True

 b. False

Hide Feedback

Correct

Check My Work Feedback

Correct.

A 12-year bond has an annual coupon of 9%. The coupon rate will remain fixed until the bond matures. The bond has a yield to maturity of 7%. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a. If market interest rates remain unchanged, the bond's price one year from now will be higher than it is today.

b. The bond is currently selling at a price below its par value.

c. If market interest rates remain unchanged, the bond's price one year from now will be lower than it is today.

d. If market interest rates decline, the price of the bond will also decline.

e. The bond should currently be selling at its par value.

Hide Feedback

Correct

A bond has a $1,000 par value, makes annual interest payments of $100, has 5 years to maturity, cannot be called, and is not expected to default. The bond should sell at a premium if market interest rates are below 10% and at a discount if interest rates are greater than 10%.

 a. True

 b. False

Hide Feedback

Correct

Check My Work Feedback

Correct.

There is an inverse relationship between bonds' quality ratings and their required rates of return. Thus, the required return is lowest for AAA-rated bonds, and required returns increase as the ratings get lower.

 a. True

 b. False

Hide Feedback

Correct

Check My Work Feedback

Correct.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a. The shorter the time to maturity, the greater the change in the value of a bond in response to a given change in interest rates, other things held constant.

b. The longer the time to maturity, the smaller the change in the value of a bond in response to a given change in interest rates.

c. You hold two bonds, a 10-year, zero coupon, issue and a 10-year bond that pays a 6% annual coupon. The same market rate, 6%, applies to both bonds. If the market rate rises from its current level, the zero coupon bond will experience the larger percentage decline.

d. The time to maturity does not affect the change in the value of a bond in response to a given change in interest rates.

e. You hold two bonds. One is a 10-year, zero coupon, bond and the other is a 10-year bond that pays a 6% annual coupon. The same market rate, 6%, applies to both bonds. If the market rate rises from the current level, the zero coupon bond will experience the smaller percentage decline.

Hide Feedback

Correct

Three $1,000 face value, 10-year, noncallable, bonds have the same amount of risk, hence their YTMs are equal. Bond 8 has an 8% annual coupon, Bond 10 has a 10% annual coupon, and Bond 12 has a 12% annual coupon. Bond 10 sells at par. Assuming that interest rates remain constant for the next 10 years, which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a. Bond 8 sells at a discount (its price is less than par), and its price is expected to increase over the next year.

b. Since the bonds have the same YTM, they should all have the same price, and since interest rates are not expected to change, their prices should all remain at their current levels until maturity.

c. Bond 12 sells at a premium (its price is greater than par), and its price is expected to increase over the next year.

d. Bond 8's current yield will increase each year.

e. Over the next year, Bond 8's price is expected to decrease, Bond 10's price is expected to stay the same, and Bond 12's price is expected to increase.

Hide Feedback

Correct

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a. If a bond's yield to maturity exceeds its coupon rate, the bond will sell at a premium over par.

b. A zero coupon bond's current yield is equal to its yield to maturity.

c. All else equal, if a bond's yield to maturity increases, its price will fall.

d. If a bond's yield to maturity exceeds its coupon rate, the bond will sell at par.

e. All else equal, if a bond's yield to maturity increases, its current yield will fall.

Hide Feedback

Correct

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a. All else equal, high-coupon bonds have less reinvestment risk than low-coupon bonds.

b. All else equal, long-term bonds have less price risk than short-term bonds.

c. All else equal, low-coupon bonds have less price risk than high-coupon bonds.

d. All else equal, short-term bonds have less reinvestment risk than long-term bonds.

e. All else equal, long-term bonds have less reinvestment risk than short-term bonds.

Hide Feedback

Correct

A 15-year bond with a face value of $1,000 currently sells for $850. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a. The bond's yield to maturity is greater than its coupon rate.

b. The bond's current yield exceeds its yield to maturity.

c. If the yield to maturity stays constant until the bond matures, the bond's price will remain at $850.

d. The bond's coupon rate exceeds its current yield.

e. The bond's current yield is equal to its coupon rate.

Hide Feedback

Correct

 Attempts 

This question has been attempted.
 
Score 1 out of 1

1.  Chapter TF, Section .01, Problem 003

The board of directors is the highest ranking body in a corporation, and the chairman of the board is the highest ranking individual. The CEO generally works under the board and its chairman, and the board generally has the authority to remove the CEO under certain conditions. The CEO, however, cannot remove the board, but he or she can endeavor to have the board voted out and a new board voted in should a conflict arise. It is possible for a person to simultaneously serve as CEO and chairman of the board, though many corporate control experts believe it is bad to vest both offices in the same person.
Correct
Check My Work Feedback
Correct.
Solution
Correct Response
true
Attempts This question has been attempted.

 

Score 1 out of 1

2.  Chapter TF, Section .01, Problem 004

Partnerships and proprietorships generally have a tax advantage over corporations.
Correct
Check My Work Feedback
Correct.
Solution
Correct Response
true

3.  Chapter TF, Section .01, Problem 005

A disadvantage of the corporate form of organization is that corporate stockholders are more exposed to personal liabilities in the event of bankruptcy than are investors in a typical partnership.
Correct
Check My Work Feedback
Correct.
Solution
Correct Response
false

4.  Chapter TF, Section .01, Problem 001

In most corporations, the CFO ranks under the CEO.
Correct
Check My Work Feedback
Correct.
Solution
Correct Response
true

5.  Chapter TF, Section .01, Problem 014

The more capital a firm is likely to require, the greater the probability that it will be organized as a corporation.
Correct
Check My Work Feedback
Correct.
Solution
Correct Response
true

6.  Chapter TF, Section .01, Problem 016

Organizing as a corporation makes it easier for the firm to raise capital. This is because corporations' stockholders are not subject to personal liabilities if the firm goes bankrupt and also because it is easier to transfer shares of stock than partnership interests.
Correct
Check My Work Feedback
Correct.
Solution
Correct Response
true

7.  Chapter TF, Section .01, Problem 017

In order to maximize its shareholders' value, a firm's management must attempt to maximize the stock price in the long run, or the stock's "intrinsic value."
Correct
Check My Work Feedback
Correct.
Solution
Correct Response
true

8.  Chapter TF, Section .01, Problem 023

A stock's market price would equal its intrinsic value if all investors had all the information that is available about the stock. In this case the stock's market price would equal its intrinsic value.
Correct
Check My Work Feedback
Correct.
Solution
Correct Response
true

9.  Chapter TF, Section .01, Problem 026

For a stock to be in equilibrium as the book defines it, its market price should exceed its intrinsic value.
Correct
Check My Work Feedback
Correct.
Solution
Correct Response
false

10.  Chapter MC, Section .01, Problem 046

The primary operating goal of a publicly-owned firm trying to best serve its stockholders should be to
Correct
Solution
Correct Response
b

1.  Chapter TF, Section .03, Problem 001

The annual report contains four basic financial statements: the income statement, the balance sheet, the cash flow statement, and the statement of stockholders' equity.
Correct
Check My Work Feedback
Correct.
Solution
Correct Response
true

2.  Chapter TF, Section .03, Problem 004

On the balance sheet, total assets must always equal the sum of total liabilities and equity.
Correct
Check My Work Feedback
Correct.
Solution
Correct Response
true

3.  Chapter TF, Section .03, Problem 007

The income statement shows the difference between a firm's income and its costs—i.e., its profits—during a specified period of time. However, not all reported income comes in the form of cash, and reported costs likewise may not be consistent with cash outlays. Therefore, there may be a substantial difference between a firm's reported profits and its actual cash flow for the same period.
Correct
Check My Work Feedback
Correct.
Solution
Correct Response
true

4.  Chapter TF, Section .03, Problem 008

The balance sheet represents a snapshot in time, whereas the income statement reports on operations over a period of time.
Correct
Check My Work Feedback
Correct.
Solution
Correct Response
true

5.  Chapter TF, Section .03, Problem 009

EBIT, often referred to as operating income, stands for "earnings before interest and taxes."
Correct
Check My Work Feedback
Correct.
Solution
Correct Response
true

6.  Chapter TF, Section .03, Problem 011

Consider the following balance sheet for Games Inc. Because Games has $800,000 of retained earnings, we know that the company would be able to pay cash to buy an asset with a cost of $200,000.

Cash$50,000 Accounts payable$100,000
Inventory$200,000 Accruals$100,000
Accounts receivable$250,000 Total CL$200,000
Total CA$500,000 Long-term debt$200,000
Net fixed assets$900,000 Common stock$200,000
   Retained earnings$800,000
Total assets$1,400,000 Total L & E$1,400,000
Correct
Check My Work Feedback
Correct.
Post Submission Feedback
Note that the firm has only $50,000 of cash. It would have to either sell assets or borrow $150,000 to pay cash for the new asset. That might not be possible.
Solution
Correct Response
false

7.  Chapter TF, Section .03, Problem 014

The value of any asset is the present value of the cash flows the asset is expected to provide. The cash flows a business is able to provide to its investors is its free cash flow. This is the reason that FCF is so important in finance.
Correct
Check My Work Feedback
Correct.
Solution
Correct Response
true

8.  Chapter TF, Section .03, Problem 012

Typically, the statement of stockholders' equity starts with total stockholders' equity at the beginning of the year, adds net income, subtracts dividends paid, and ends with total stockholders' equity at the end of the year. Over time, a profitable company will have earnings in excess of the dividends it pays out, resulting in a substantial amount of retained earnings shown on the balance sheet.
Correct
Check My Work Feedback
Correct.
Solution
Correct Response
true

9.  Chapter TF, Section .03, Problem 018

The balance sheet measures the flow of funds into and out of various accounts over time, while the income statement measures the firm's financial position at a point in time.
Correct
Check My Work Feedback
Correct.
Solution
Correct Response
false

10.  Chapter TF, Section .03, Problem 026

To estimate the cash flow from operations, depreciation must be added back to net income because depreciation is a non-cash charge that has been deducted from revenue in the net income calculation.
Correct
Check My Work Feedback
Correct.
Solution
Correct Response
true
Assume that interest rates on 20-year Treasury and corporate bonds with different ratings, all of which are noncallable, are as follows:

 T-bond = 7.72%          A = 9.64%
AAA = 8.72%               BBB = 10.18%

The differences in rates among these issues were most probably caused primarily by:
Correct
The price sensitivity of a bond to a given change in interest rates is generally greater the longer the bond's remaining maturity.
Correct
Check My Work Feedback
Correct.
A call provision gives bondholders the right to demand, or "call for," repayment of a bond. Typically, companies call bonds if interest rates rise and do not call them if interest rates decline.
Correct
Check My Work Feedback
Correct.
Assume that all interest rates in the economy decline from 10% to 9%. Which of the following bonds would have the largest percentage increase in price?
Correct
A 10-year bond pays an annual coupon, its YTM is 8%, and it currently trades at a premium. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
Correct
Because short-term interest rates are much more volatile than long-term rates, you would, in the real world, generally be subject to much more price risk if you purchased a 30-day bond than if you bought a 30-year bond.
Correct
Check My Work Feedback
Correct.
Sinking funds are provisions included in bond indentures that require companies to retire bonds on a scheduled basis prior to their final maturity. Many indentures allow the company to acquire bonds for sinking fund purposes by either (1) purchasing bonds on the open market at the going market price or (2) selecting the bonds to be called by a lottery administered by the trustee, in which case the price paid is the bond's face value.
Correct
Check My Work Feedback
Correct.
A 12-year bond has an annual coupon of 9%. The coupon rate will remain fixed until the bond matures. The bond has a yield to maturity of 7%. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
Correct
A bond has a $1,000 par value, makes annual interest payments of $100, has 5 years to maturity, cannot be called, and is not expected to default. The bond should sell at a premium if market interest rates are below 10% and at a discount if interest rates are greater than 10%.
Correct
Check My Work Feedback
Correct.
There is an inverse relationship between bonds' quality ratings and their required rates of return. Thus, the required return is lowest for AAA-rated bonds, and required returns increase as the ratings get lower.
Correct
Check My Work Feedback
Correct.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
Correct
Three $1,000 face value, 10-year, noncallable, bonds have the same amount of risk, hence their YTMs are equal. Bond 8 has an 8% annual coupon, Bond 10 has a 10% annual coupon, and Bond 12 has a 12% annual coupon. Bond 10 sells at par. Assuming that interest rates remain constant for the next 10 years, which of the following statements is CORRECT?
Correct        
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
Correct
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
Correct
A 15-year bond with a face value of $1,000 currently sells for $850. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
Correct

  1. Question 1
    1. T
    2. F
  2. Question 4
  3. Question 7
  4. Question 9
    1. T
    2. F
  5. Question 10
    1. T
    2. F

  1. Question 2
  2. Question 7
  3. Question 9
  4. Question 10










































Comments

Popular posts from this blog

IS5203 Type 2 Post Assessment and Final Quiz

  Carlos has just created a new subnet for the finance department. He needs to be able to allow the employees in finance to retrieve files from the sales server, which is located in another subnet. Which of the following OSI model layers would it be necessary to categorize the device into? a. Layer 4 b. Layer 6 c. Layer 2 d. Layer 3 All of the cubicles in a company's office have cables that run up to the ceiling and across to an IDF. Inside the IDF, they connect directly to the latest generation switch available from the networking equipment vendor that they have chosen. Which of the following describes the physical topology most likely in use? a. mesh

GE5103-2 Project Management [Aug 23 Syllabus]

    Some of the advantages of using time boxes and cycles in project coordination efforts include creating urgency, measuring progress, and allowing for predictable measurements. A)        True 2.    Even though most project managers are not contract specialists, they need to understand the process well enough to coordinate with the team. For the current assignment, you are looking at a short-term and small effort with a contractor of just a few hours without significant clarity. Which of the following would be the most applicable contract to use in this situation? A)        Time and materials 3. The project you are working on has had modifications to the plan from the start and even how the project is run. Project governance covers all of the 3 following except: A)        Naming The project manager 4. Of the following, which is most likely a trigger condition defined early in the project? A) Alerting Governance board if 10 percent over schedule 5. Of the following options, which stand

GE5163 Week8 ( Final Exam ) Quize's

  A process or product that is insensitive to normal variation is referred to as being Select one: a. in specification b. capable c. robust d. out of control Feedback Your answer is correct. A completed failure mode and effects analysis (FMEA) results in the following assessment rating.      Occurrence = 4      Severity = 8      Detection = 10 What is the risk priority number (RPN) for this FMEA? Select one: a. 42 b. 22 c. 320 d. 120 Feedback Your answer is correct. In a visual inspection situation, one of the best ways to minimize deterioration of the quality level is to: Select one: a. have a program of frequent eye exams. b. retrain the inspector frequently. c. add variety to the task. d. have a standard to compare against as an element of the operation. Feedback Your answer is correct. Which of the following elements is least necessary to a good corrective action feedback report? Select one: a. What caused the failure b. Who caused the failure c. What correction has been made d. Wh